NSG 3250 NURSING PRACTICE ADULT HEALTH 1 EXAM 4
A client is diagnosed with syphilis. What is the primary treatment for all stages of this infection?
A) Acyclovir
B) Metronidazole
C) Penicillin G
D) Doxycycline
Correct Answer: Penicillin G
Rationale: Penicillin G is the first-line treatment for syphilis at all stages . For clients allergic to penicillin,
doxycycline is an alternative . Acyclovir is used for viral infections like herpes, and metronidazole is used
for bacterial vaginosis and trichomoniasis.
A male client reports perineal discomfort, burning, urgency, frequency with urination, and pain with
ejaculation. The nurse suspects which condition?
A) Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)
B) Prostatitis
C) Epididymitis
D) Urethral stricture
Correct Answer: Prostatitis
Rationale: Prostatitis is an inflammation of the prostate gland. Symptoms include perineal discomfort,
burning and urgency with urination, frequency, and pain with ejaculation . BPH typically presents with
urinary hesitancy and decreased stream, while epididymitis presents with scrotal pain and swelling.
Which finding is most concerning in a client following a prostatectomy?
A) The client is positioned in the lithotomy position
B) Urine is light pink 24 hours after surgery
,C) The client has dark red or bright red blood with clots in the urine
D) The client reports mild discomfort
Correct Answer: The client has dark red or bright red blood with clots in the urine
Rationale: Dark red or bright red blood with clots in the urine following a prostatectomy indicates active
bleeding and requires immediate notification of the provider . Pink-tinged urine is expected in the first
24 hours postoperatively.
A client is receiving brachytherapy for prostate cancer. What is the priority nursing action if the
radioactive implant becomes dislodged?
A) Immediately discard the implant
B) Use long-handled forceps to place the implant in a lead container and call radiology
C) Notify the provider and document the incident
D) Place the implant in the client's bedside table
Correct Answer: Use long-handled forceps to place the implant in a lead container and call radiology
Rationale: If a radioactive implant becomes dislodged, the nurse should use long-handled forceps to pick
it up, place it in a lead container, and call radiology immediately . The nurse should avoid standing close
to the source and organize care to limit time in the client's room.
A client is diagnosed with Chlamydia. Which statement is correct regarding this infection?
A) It is caused by a virus and treated with acyclovir
B) It is more common in women between the ages of 15 and 24 and often asymptomatic
C) It is caused by a spirochete and treated with penicillin
D) It always presents with painful genital lesions
Correct Answer: It is more common in women between the ages of 15 and 24 and often asymptomatic
,Rationale: Chlamydia is the most common bacterial STI in the United States, with women aged 15-24
having the highest rates. It is often asymptomatic, which increases the risk of spread and complications
like pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) .
A client is diagnosed with bacterial vaginosis. Which assessment finding is most consistent with this
condition?
A) Thick white, curd-like discharge
B) Malodorous, frothy, discolored discharge
C) Fishy odor with thin, grayish-white discharge
D) Painful vesicular lesions
Correct Answer: Fishy odor with thin, grayish-white discharge
Rationale: Bacterial vaginosis is characterized by a fishy odor and thin, grayish-white discharge . Thick
white, curd-like discharge is associated with a yeast infection, frothy discharge with trichomoniasis, and
vesicular lesions with herpes.
A client with pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) asks the nurse, "How did I get this infection?" What is the
best response?
A) "It is caused by an overgrowth of normal vaginal bacteria."
B) "It is typically caused by untreated sexually transmitted infections like chlamydia or gonorrhea."
C) "It is caused by a virus that is transmitted through sexual contact."
D) "It is an autoimmune disorder that affects the pelvic organs."
Correct Answer: "It is typically caused by untreated sexually transmitted infections like chlamydia or
gonorrhea."
Rationale: PID is an inflammatory condition of the pelvic cavity that usually begins with cervicitis and can
involve the uterus, Fallopian tubes, ovaries, and pelvic peritoneum . It is most commonly caused by
untreated chlamydia or gonorrhea infections.
, A client has a downward displacement of the bladder toward the vaginal orifice. The nurse documents
this finding as:
A) Rectocele
B) Cystocele
C) Uterine prolapse
D) Vaginitis
Correct Answer: Cystocele
Rationale: Cystocele is the downward displacement of the bladder toward the vaginal orifice . Rectocele
is an upward pouching of the rectum that pushes the posterior wall of the vagina forward .
A client with uterine prolapse asks the nurse about treatment options. Which intervention should the
nurse include in the teaching?
A) Kegel exercises only
B) Use of a pessary
C) Antibiotic therapy
D) Increased fluid intake
Correct Answer: Use of a pessary
Rationale: A pessary is an appliance inserted into the vagina to support the uterus and is a first-line
treatment for uterine prolapse . Kegel exercises can help strengthen pelvic floor muscles but may not
resolve the prolapse.
A client is experiencing symptoms of menopause. Which medication is commonly used for hormone
therapy?
A) Finasteride
B) Tamsulosin
C) Estrogen
D) Testosterone
A client is diagnosed with syphilis. What is the primary treatment for all stages of this infection?
A) Acyclovir
B) Metronidazole
C) Penicillin G
D) Doxycycline
Correct Answer: Penicillin G
Rationale: Penicillin G is the first-line treatment for syphilis at all stages . For clients allergic to penicillin,
doxycycline is an alternative . Acyclovir is used for viral infections like herpes, and metronidazole is used
for bacterial vaginosis and trichomoniasis.
A male client reports perineal discomfort, burning, urgency, frequency with urination, and pain with
ejaculation. The nurse suspects which condition?
A) Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)
B) Prostatitis
C) Epididymitis
D) Urethral stricture
Correct Answer: Prostatitis
Rationale: Prostatitis is an inflammation of the prostate gland. Symptoms include perineal discomfort,
burning and urgency with urination, frequency, and pain with ejaculation . BPH typically presents with
urinary hesitancy and decreased stream, while epididymitis presents with scrotal pain and swelling.
Which finding is most concerning in a client following a prostatectomy?
A) The client is positioned in the lithotomy position
B) Urine is light pink 24 hours after surgery
,C) The client has dark red or bright red blood with clots in the urine
D) The client reports mild discomfort
Correct Answer: The client has dark red or bright red blood with clots in the urine
Rationale: Dark red or bright red blood with clots in the urine following a prostatectomy indicates active
bleeding and requires immediate notification of the provider . Pink-tinged urine is expected in the first
24 hours postoperatively.
A client is receiving brachytherapy for prostate cancer. What is the priority nursing action if the
radioactive implant becomes dislodged?
A) Immediately discard the implant
B) Use long-handled forceps to place the implant in a lead container and call radiology
C) Notify the provider and document the incident
D) Place the implant in the client's bedside table
Correct Answer: Use long-handled forceps to place the implant in a lead container and call radiology
Rationale: If a radioactive implant becomes dislodged, the nurse should use long-handled forceps to pick
it up, place it in a lead container, and call radiology immediately . The nurse should avoid standing close
to the source and organize care to limit time in the client's room.
A client is diagnosed with Chlamydia. Which statement is correct regarding this infection?
A) It is caused by a virus and treated with acyclovir
B) It is more common in women between the ages of 15 and 24 and often asymptomatic
C) It is caused by a spirochete and treated with penicillin
D) It always presents with painful genital lesions
Correct Answer: It is more common in women between the ages of 15 and 24 and often asymptomatic
,Rationale: Chlamydia is the most common bacterial STI in the United States, with women aged 15-24
having the highest rates. It is often asymptomatic, which increases the risk of spread and complications
like pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) .
A client is diagnosed with bacterial vaginosis. Which assessment finding is most consistent with this
condition?
A) Thick white, curd-like discharge
B) Malodorous, frothy, discolored discharge
C) Fishy odor with thin, grayish-white discharge
D) Painful vesicular lesions
Correct Answer: Fishy odor with thin, grayish-white discharge
Rationale: Bacterial vaginosis is characterized by a fishy odor and thin, grayish-white discharge . Thick
white, curd-like discharge is associated with a yeast infection, frothy discharge with trichomoniasis, and
vesicular lesions with herpes.
A client with pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) asks the nurse, "How did I get this infection?" What is the
best response?
A) "It is caused by an overgrowth of normal vaginal bacteria."
B) "It is typically caused by untreated sexually transmitted infections like chlamydia or gonorrhea."
C) "It is caused by a virus that is transmitted through sexual contact."
D) "It is an autoimmune disorder that affects the pelvic organs."
Correct Answer: "It is typically caused by untreated sexually transmitted infections like chlamydia or
gonorrhea."
Rationale: PID is an inflammatory condition of the pelvic cavity that usually begins with cervicitis and can
involve the uterus, Fallopian tubes, ovaries, and pelvic peritoneum . It is most commonly caused by
untreated chlamydia or gonorrhea infections.
, A client has a downward displacement of the bladder toward the vaginal orifice. The nurse documents
this finding as:
A) Rectocele
B) Cystocele
C) Uterine prolapse
D) Vaginitis
Correct Answer: Cystocele
Rationale: Cystocele is the downward displacement of the bladder toward the vaginal orifice . Rectocele
is an upward pouching of the rectum that pushes the posterior wall of the vagina forward .
A client with uterine prolapse asks the nurse about treatment options. Which intervention should the
nurse include in the teaching?
A) Kegel exercises only
B) Use of a pessary
C) Antibiotic therapy
D) Increased fluid intake
Correct Answer: Use of a pessary
Rationale: A pessary is an appliance inserted into the vagina to support the uterus and is a first-line
treatment for uterine prolapse . Kegel exercises can help strengthen pelvic floor muscles but may not
resolve the prolapse.
A client is experiencing symptoms of menopause. Which medication is commonly used for hormone
therapy?
A) Finasteride
B) Tamsulosin
C) Estrogen
D) Testosterone
