TEST BANK FOR LEHNE’S
PHARMACOTHERAPEUTICS
FOR ADVANCED PRACTICE
NURSES AND PHYSICIAN
ASSISTANTS 3RD EDITION BY
JACQUELINE BURCHUM;
LAURA D. ROSENTHAL
1. An APRN works in a urology clinic under the supervision
of a physician who does not restrict the types of
medications the APRN is allowed to prescribe. State law
does not require the APRN to practice under physician
supervision. How would the APRN's prescriptive authority
be described?
A) Full authority
B) Independent
C) Without limitation
D) Limited authority
Answer: B) Independent
Rationale: The APRN has independent prescriptive authority
because the regulating body does not require physician
supervision. "Full authority" gives the right to prescribe
,independently but can be restricted by state law or
institutional policy .
2. A family nurse practitioner practicing in Maine is hired at
a practice across state lines in Virginia. Which aspect of
practice may change for the APRN?
A) The APRN will have less prescriptive authority in the new
position.
B) The APRN will have more prescriptive authority in the new
position.
C) The APRN will have equal prescriptive authority in the new
position.
D) The APRN's authority will depend on federal regulations.
Answer: A) The APRN will have less prescriptive authority in
the new position.
Rationale: Virginia allows limited prescriptive authority,
while Maine gives full authority. The federal government
does not regulate prescriptive authority; it is state-specific .
3. A Schedule II prescription for opioids must be:
A) Called in to the pharmacy
B) Written (or transmitted electronically where permitted)
and cannot be refilled
C) Refillable up to 5 times within 6 months
D) Authorized for a 90-day supply
Answer: B) Written (or transmitted electronically where
permitted) and cannot be refilled
Rationale: Schedule II prescriptions must be written and
cannot be refilled. In emergencies, oral prescriptions are
allowed, but a written script must follow within 7 days .
,4. What is the primary purpose of the FDA Black Box
Warning?
A) To indicate the drug is available over-the-counter
B) To alert prescribers to serious and potentially life-
threatening risks
C) To suggest the drug is the most effective for its indication
D) To prohibit the use of the drug entirely
Answer: B) To alert prescribers to serious and potentially life-
threatening risks
Rationale: Black Box Warnings alert prescribers to serious
risks. They do not prohibit use; the prescriber must weigh
risks and benefits .
5. Which federal law grants controlled substance
prescribing authority to mid-level practitioners in the
United States?
A) The Affordable Care Act
B) The Controlled Substances Act (CSA) of 1970
C) The Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act
D) The HIPAA Privacy Rule
Answer: B) The Controlled Substances Act (CSA) of 1970
Rationale: The CSA established the DEA registration system
under which NPs and PAs may obtain prescriptive authority
for controlled substances .
Pharmacokinetics and Pharmacodynamics
6. What is the difference between pharmacokinetics and
pharmacodynamics?
A) Pharmacokinetics is the study of drug absorption;
, pharmacodynamics is the study of drug distribution.
B) Pharmacokinetics is what the body does to the drug;
pharmacodynamics is what the drug does to the body.
C) Pharmacokinetics is the study of drug side effects;
pharmacodynamics is the study of drug interactions.
D) Pharmacokinetics is the study of drug pricing;
pharmacodynamics is the study of drug efficacy.
Answer: B) Pharmacokinetics is what the body does to the
drug; pharmacodynamics is what the drug does to the body.
Rationale: Pharmacokinetics (PK) describes drug movement
through the body (ADME: Absorption, Distribution,
Metabolism, Excretion). Pharmacodynamics (PD) describes
the drug's effects at receptor sites .
7. The term "agonist" refers to a drug that:
A) Binds to a receptor and blocks its activation.
B) Binds to a receptor and activates it (produces a response).
C) Has no effect on receptors.
D) Only works outside of receptors.
Answer: B) Binds to a receptor and activates it (produces a
response).
Rationale: Full agonists produce a maximal response.
Antagonists block receptor activation .
8. Efficacy refers to:
A) The dose required for effect (potency).
B) The maximum effect a drug can produce (clinical
effectiveness).
C) The time to peak effect.
D) The half-life.
PHARMACOTHERAPEUTICS
FOR ADVANCED PRACTICE
NURSES AND PHYSICIAN
ASSISTANTS 3RD EDITION BY
JACQUELINE BURCHUM;
LAURA D. ROSENTHAL
1. An APRN works in a urology clinic under the supervision
of a physician who does not restrict the types of
medications the APRN is allowed to prescribe. State law
does not require the APRN to practice under physician
supervision. How would the APRN's prescriptive authority
be described?
A) Full authority
B) Independent
C) Without limitation
D) Limited authority
Answer: B) Independent
Rationale: The APRN has independent prescriptive authority
because the regulating body does not require physician
supervision. "Full authority" gives the right to prescribe
,independently but can be restricted by state law or
institutional policy .
2. A family nurse practitioner practicing in Maine is hired at
a practice across state lines in Virginia. Which aspect of
practice may change for the APRN?
A) The APRN will have less prescriptive authority in the new
position.
B) The APRN will have more prescriptive authority in the new
position.
C) The APRN will have equal prescriptive authority in the new
position.
D) The APRN's authority will depend on federal regulations.
Answer: A) The APRN will have less prescriptive authority in
the new position.
Rationale: Virginia allows limited prescriptive authority,
while Maine gives full authority. The federal government
does not regulate prescriptive authority; it is state-specific .
3. A Schedule II prescription for opioids must be:
A) Called in to the pharmacy
B) Written (or transmitted electronically where permitted)
and cannot be refilled
C) Refillable up to 5 times within 6 months
D) Authorized for a 90-day supply
Answer: B) Written (or transmitted electronically where
permitted) and cannot be refilled
Rationale: Schedule II prescriptions must be written and
cannot be refilled. In emergencies, oral prescriptions are
allowed, but a written script must follow within 7 days .
,4. What is the primary purpose of the FDA Black Box
Warning?
A) To indicate the drug is available over-the-counter
B) To alert prescribers to serious and potentially life-
threatening risks
C) To suggest the drug is the most effective for its indication
D) To prohibit the use of the drug entirely
Answer: B) To alert prescribers to serious and potentially life-
threatening risks
Rationale: Black Box Warnings alert prescribers to serious
risks. They do not prohibit use; the prescriber must weigh
risks and benefits .
5. Which federal law grants controlled substance
prescribing authority to mid-level practitioners in the
United States?
A) The Affordable Care Act
B) The Controlled Substances Act (CSA) of 1970
C) The Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act
D) The HIPAA Privacy Rule
Answer: B) The Controlled Substances Act (CSA) of 1970
Rationale: The CSA established the DEA registration system
under which NPs and PAs may obtain prescriptive authority
for controlled substances .
Pharmacokinetics and Pharmacodynamics
6. What is the difference between pharmacokinetics and
pharmacodynamics?
A) Pharmacokinetics is the study of drug absorption;
, pharmacodynamics is the study of drug distribution.
B) Pharmacokinetics is what the body does to the drug;
pharmacodynamics is what the drug does to the body.
C) Pharmacokinetics is the study of drug side effects;
pharmacodynamics is the study of drug interactions.
D) Pharmacokinetics is the study of drug pricing;
pharmacodynamics is the study of drug efficacy.
Answer: B) Pharmacokinetics is what the body does to the
drug; pharmacodynamics is what the drug does to the body.
Rationale: Pharmacokinetics (PK) describes drug movement
through the body (ADME: Absorption, Distribution,
Metabolism, Excretion). Pharmacodynamics (PD) describes
the drug's effects at receptor sites .
7. The term "agonist" refers to a drug that:
A) Binds to a receptor and blocks its activation.
B) Binds to a receptor and activates it (produces a response).
C) Has no effect on receptors.
D) Only works outside of receptors.
Answer: B) Binds to a receptor and activates it (produces a
response).
Rationale: Full agonists produce a maximal response.
Antagonists block receptor activation .
8. Efficacy refers to:
A) The dose required for effect (potency).
B) The maximum effect a drug can produce (clinical
effectiveness).
C) The time to peak effect.
D) The half-life.
