EXAM QUESTIONS AND
VERIFIED CORRECT
ANSWERS GRADED A+
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Rationale: Villous atrophy in the small intestine supports a diagnosis of celiac disease which can
be managed by avoidance of gluten.
A 49-year-old male presents to your service with symptoms of fever 102.3, jaundice, and
abdominal pain. Imagining reveals a biliary obstruction. Which diagnosis is most likely for this
patient? - CORRECT ANSWER-Cholangitis
Rationale: The most common cause of this is a biliary stone causing obstruction and allowing for
ascending of bacteria and infection
An adult female presents with a 1-week history of left lower quadrant abdominal pain. T=101.2
degrees F. (38.4 degrees C) and an elevated WBC count. This is the patient's first episode of
severe abdominal pain. The nurse practitioner suspects diverticulitis. Which of the following
diagnostic tests would confirm the diagnosis? - CORRECT ANSWER-CT scan of the abdomen
, The most common side effect of the oral ribavirin used in the treatment of hepatitis C is: -
CORRECT ANSWER-Depression
Rationale: It is important to note that ribavirin will not treat hepatitis C unless it is taken with
another medication called pegylated-interferon α (PEG-IFNα).
A 59-year-old male presents with symptoms of abdominal pain, jaundice, and weight loss which
he has not been trying to lose weight. What would be a malignancy associated with these
symptoms? - CORRECT ANSWER-Pancreatic cancer
Rationale: Pancreatic cancer, the most typically presentation includes abdominal pain, jaundice,
and weight loss. Although weight loss and abdominal pain may be present with
adenocarcinoma it is unlikely to present with jaundice, and you're unlikely to have abdominal
pain or jaundice with any esophageal malignancy.
An adult female with rheumatoid arthritis presents to the office for a follow up. She is currently
taking methotrexate and over the counter Ibuprofen. Today she complains of severe stomach
pain and intense abdominal cramping. After the nurse practitioner makes appropriate
adjustments to the patient's medication regimen, the patient still complains of abdominal
discomfort and reports dark stools. The practitioner suspects: - CORRECT ANSWER-Gastric
ulceration
Rationale: The overuse of NSAIDs such as ibuprofen (Advil) have caused the prostaglandin
inhibition-related thinning of the mucosal lining of the stomach, thereby predisposing the
patient to gastric ulceration and GI bleeding.
Where can Crohn's disease be located within the GI tract and how does it present (continuous
or patchy)? - CORRECT ANSWER-Patchy inflammation throughout the small bowel and colon
Rationale: Crohn's disease unlike UC is a patchy inflammation that can be found throughout the
small bowel and colon.