NUR390 ADULT HEALTH NURSING MIDTERM EXAM
(CONCORDIA UNIVERSITY, ST. PAUL) EXAM
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) Q&A 2027 |INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF
1. A nurse is assessing a client admitted with left-sided heart
failure. Which assessment finding requires immediate
intervention?
A. Bilateral ankle edema
B. Crackles throughout both lung fields
C. Blood pressure 150/88 mm Hg
D. Weight gain of 2 lb in one week
Correct Answer: B. Crackles throughout both lung fields
Rationale:
Diffuse crackles indicate pulmonary edema caused by fluid
backing into the lungs, which threatens oxygenation and
requires immediate intervention. Peripheral edema, mild
hypertension, and gradual weight gain are expected findings
but are less urgent.
2. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
is receiving oxygen therapy. Which oxygen saturation goal is
appropriate?
,A. 100%
B. 98–100%
C. 88–92%
D. Above 95%
Correct Answer: C. 88–92%
Rationale:
Many clients with advanced COPD require lower oxygen
saturation targets to prevent suppression of respiratory drive
while maintaining adequate oxygenation. Higher oxygen
concentrations may worsen hypercapnia.
3. Which laboratory value should the nurse report
immediately for a client receiving warfarin?
A. INR 2.5
B. INR 1.8
C. INR 5.8
D. INR 2.0
Correct Answer: C. INR 5.8
Rationale:
An INR of 5.8 indicates excessive anticoagulation and
significantly increases bleeding risk. Therapeutic INR for most
conditions is approximately 2.0–3.0.
,4. A nurse is caring for a client with type 1 diabetes who is
experiencing hypoglycemia. Which finding is expected?
A. Warm, dry skin
B. Fruity breath odor
C. Diaphoresis and tremors
D. Deep rapid respirations
Correct Answer: C. Diaphoresis and tremors
Rationale:
Hypoglycemia activates the sympathetic nervous system,
causing sweating, shakiness, tachycardia, and hunger. Fruity
breath and Kussmaul respirations are associated with diabetic
ketoacidosis.
5. Which electrolyte imbalance places a client at the highest
risk for life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias?
A. Sodium 134 mEq/L
B. Calcium 8.9 mg/dL
C. Potassium 6.4 mEq/L
D. Magnesium 2.0 mg/dL
Correct Answer: C. Potassium 6.4 mEq/L
, Rationale:
Severe hyperkalemia can rapidly cause ventricular
dysrhythmias and cardiac arrest. Immediate intervention is
necessary.
6. A postoperative client suddenly becomes short of breath,
tachycardic, and anxious. Which complication should the
nurse suspect first?
A. Pneumonia
B. Atelectasis
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Pleural effusion
Correct Answer: C. Pulmonary embolism
Rationale:
The sudden onset of dyspnea, tachycardia, chest discomfort,
and anxiety following surgery strongly suggests pulmonary
embolism, which is a medical emergency.
7. Which action is the nurse's priority when administering
intravenous potassium chloride?
A. Administer as a rapid IV push
B. Dilute and infuse using an infusion pump
C. Mix with lactated Ringer's and administer rapidly
(CONCORDIA UNIVERSITY, ST. PAUL) EXAM
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) Q&A 2027 |INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF
1. A nurse is assessing a client admitted with left-sided heart
failure. Which assessment finding requires immediate
intervention?
A. Bilateral ankle edema
B. Crackles throughout both lung fields
C. Blood pressure 150/88 mm Hg
D. Weight gain of 2 lb in one week
Correct Answer: B. Crackles throughout both lung fields
Rationale:
Diffuse crackles indicate pulmonary edema caused by fluid
backing into the lungs, which threatens oxygenation and
requires immediate intervention. Peripheral edema, mild
hypertension, and gradual weight gain are expected findings
but are less urgent.
2. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
is receiving oxygen therapy. Which oxygen saturation goal is
appropriate?
,A. 100%
B. 98–100%
C. 88–92%
D. Above 95%
Correct Answer: C. 88–92%
Rationale:
Many clients with advanced COPD require lower oxygen
saturation targets to prevent suppression of respiratory drive
while maintaining adequate oxygenation. Higher oxygen
concentrations may worsen hypercapnia.
3. Which laboratory value should the nurse report
immediately for a client receiving warfarin?
A. INR 2.5
B. INR 1.8
C. INR 5.8
D. INR 2.0
Correct Answer: C. INR 5.8
Rationale:
An INR of 5.8 indicates excessive anticoagulation and
significantly increases bleeding risk. Therapeutic INR for most
conditions is approximately 2.0–3.0.
,4. A nurse is caring for a client with type 1 diabetes who is
experiencing hypoglycemia. Which finding is expected?
A. Warm, dry skin
B. Fruity breath odor
C. Diaphoresis and tremors
D. Deep rapid respirations
Correct Answer: C. Diaphoresis and tremors
Rationale:
Hypoglycemia activates the sympathetic nervous system,
causing sweating, shakiness, tachycardia, and hunger. Fruity
breath and Kussmaul respirations are associated with diabetic
ketoacidosis.
5. Which electrolyte imbalance places a client at the highest
risk for life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias?
A. Sodium 134 mEq/L
B. Calcium 8.9 mg/dL
C. Potassium 6.4 mEq/L
D. Magnesium 2.0 mg/dL
Correct Answer: C. Potassium 6.4 mEq/L
, Rationale:
Severe hyperkalemia can rapidly cause ventricular
dysrhythmias and cardiac arrest. Immediate intervention is
necessary.
6. A postoperative client suddenly becomes short of breath,
tachycardic, and anxious. Which complication should the
nurse suspect first?
A. Pneumonia
B. Atelectasis
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Pleural effusion
Correct Answer: C. Pulmonary embolism
Rationale:
The sudden onset of dyspnea, tachycardia, chest discomfort,
and anxiety following surgery strongly suggests pulmonary
embolism, which is a medical emergency.
7. Which action is the nurse's priority when administering
intravenous potassium chloride?
A. Administer as a rapid IV push
B. Dilute and infuse using an infusion pump
C. Mix with lactated Ringer's and administer rapidly
