WGU D441 Pharmacology OA Actual
Question and Correct Detailed | Latest
Update 2026/2027 – Verified Q&As
with Detailed Rationales (Test Bank
Bundle - 88 Questions)
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*QUESTION 1:*
A patient prescribed warfarin has an INR of 1.2. The nurse anticipates what change to therapy?
A) Increase the warfarin dose
B) Decrease the warfarin dose
C) Administer vitamin K
D) Hold the next dose
> 🎯 *CORRECT ANSWER:* A) Increase the warfarin dose
> 💡 *CLINICAL RATIONALE:*
> * *Why It's Right:* INR is subtherapeutic; dose increase is needed.
> * *Why Distractors Fail:* Decrease, vitamin K, and holding are for elevated INR.
> * *Core Takeaway:* INR <2 indicates insufficient anticoagulation.
---
*QUESTION 2:*
A patient on digoxin has a serum level of 2.5 ng/mL. The nurse should monitor for signs of:
,A) Toxicity
B) Therapeutic effect
C) Subtherapeutic effect
D) Allergic reaction
> 🎯 *CORRECT ANSWER:* A) Toxicity
> 💡 *CLINICAL RATIONALE:*
> * *Why It's Right:* Therapeutic digoxin level is 0.8-2.0 ng/mL.
> * *Why Distractors Fail:* Level >2 indicates toxicity, not therapeutic effect.
> * *Core Takeaway:* Monitor digoxin levels closely.
---
*QUESTION 3:*
A patient with COPD is prescribed theophylline. Which lab value should be monitored?
A) Theophylline level
B) Liver function tests
C) Renal function tests
D) Electrolytes
> 🎯 *CORRECT ANSWER:* A) Theophylline level
> 💡 *CLINICAL RATIONALE:*
> * *Why It's Right:* Theophylline has a narrow therapeutic index.
> * *Why Distractors Fail:* LFTs, renal, and electrolytes are less critical.
> * *Core Takeaway:* Monitor serum theophylline levels.
---
*QUESTION 4:*
,A patient prescribed an ACE inhibitor develops a persistent dry cough. This is most likely:
A) An allergic reaction
B) A common side effect
C) A sign of heart failure
D) An infection
> 🎯 *CORRECT ANSWER:* B) A common side effect
> 💡 *CLINICAL RATIONALE:*
> * *Why It's Right:* ACE inhibitor-induced cough is common due to bradykinin.
> * *Why Distractors Fail:* Allergy is rash; HF and infection have other signs.
> * *Core Takeaway:* ACE inhibitor cough is not an allergy.
---
*QUESTION 5:*
A patient on a statin reports muscle pain. The nurse should check which lab?
A) CPK
B) LFTs
C) BUN
D) CBC
> 🎯 *CORRECT ANSWER:* A) CPK
> 💡 *CLINICAL RATIONALE:*
> * *Why It's Right:* Elevated CPK indicates muscle damage.
> * *Why Distractors Fail:* LFTs for liver; BUN for kidney; CBC for blood.
> * *Core Takeaway:* Check CPK for rhabdomyolysis.
---
, *QUESTION 6:*
A patient receiving IV heparin has an aPTT of 120 seconds. The nurse should:
A) Continue infusion
B) Decrease infusion rate
C) Increase infusion rate
D) Administer protamine sulfate
> 🎯 *CORRECT ANSWER:* B) Decrease infusion rate
> 💡 *CLINICAL RATIONALE:*
> * *Why It's Right:* Therapeutic aPTT is 1.5-2.5 times control (60-100 seconds).
> * *Why Distractors Fail:* Continue or increase worsens bleeding risk.
> * *Core Takeaway:* aPTT >100 requires rate reduction.
---
*QUESTION 7:*
A patient is prescribed clopidogrel after a stent placement. The nurse should educate about:
A) Bleeding precautions
B) Bradycardia
C) Hypotension
D) Hyperglycemia
> 🎯 *CORRECT ANSWER:* A) Bleeding precautions
> 💡 *CLINICAL RATIONALE:*
> * *Why It's Right:* Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet, increasing bleeding risk.
> * *Why Distractors Fail:* Bradycardia, hypotension, and hyperglycemia are not typical.
> * *Core Takeaway:* Monitor for signs of bleeding.
Question and Correct Detailed | Latest
Update 2026/2027 – Verified Q&As
with Detailed Rationales (Test Bank
Bundle - 88 Questions)
---
*QUESTION 1:*
A patient prescribed warfarin has an INR of 1.2. The nurse anticipates what change to therapy?
A) Increase the warfarin dose
B) Decrease the warfarin dose
C) Administer vitamin K
D) Hold the next dose
> 🎯 *CORRECT ANSWER:* A) Increase the warfarin dose
> 💡 *CLINICAL RATIONALE:*
> * *Why It's Right:* INR is subtherapeutic; dose increase is needed.
> * *Why Distractors Fail:* Decrease, vitamin K, and holding are for elevated INR.
> * *Core Takeaway:* INR <2 indicates insufficient anticoagulation.
---
*QUESTION 2:*
A patient on digoxin has a serum level of 2.5 ng/mL. The nurse should monitor for signs of:
,A) Toxicity
B) Therapeutic effect
C) Subtherapeutic effect
D) Allergic reaction
> 🎯 *CORRECT ANSWER:* A) Toxicity
> 💡 *CLINICAL RATIONALE:*
> * *Why It's Right:* Therapeutic digoxin level is 0.8-2.0 ng/mL.
> * *Why Distractors Fail:* Level >2 indicates toxicity, not therapeutic effect.
> * *Core Takeaway:* Monitor digoxin levels closely.
---
*QUESTION 3:*
A patient with COPD is prescribed theophylline. Which lab value should be monitored?
A) Theophylline level
B) Liver function tests
C) Renal function tests
D) Electrolytes
> 🎯 *CORRECT ANSWER:* A) Theophylline level
> 💡 *CLINICAL RATIONALE:*
> * *Why It's Right:* Theophylline has a narrow therapeutic index.
> * *Why Distractors Fail:* LFTs, renal, and electrolytes are less critical.
> * *Core Takeaway:* Monitor serum theophylline levels.
---
*QUESTION 4:*
,A patient prescribed an ACE inhibitor develops a persistent dry cough. This is most likely:
A) An allergic reaction
B) A common side effect
C) A sign of heart failure
D) An infection
> 🎯 *CORRECT ANSWER:* B) A common side effect
> 💡 *CLINICAL RATIONALE:*
> * *Why It's Right:* ACE inhibitor-induced cough is common due to bradykinin.
> * *Why Distractors Fail:* Allergy is rash; HF and infection have other signs.
> * *Core Takeaway:* ACE inhibitor cough is not an allergy.
---
*QUESTION 5:*
A patient on a statin reports muscle pain. The nurse should check which lab?
A) CPK
B) LFTs
C) BUN
D) CBC
> 🎯 *CORRECT ANSWER:* A) CPK
> 💡 *CLINICAL RATIONALE:*
> * *Why It's Right:* Elevated CPK indicates muscle damage.
> * *Why Distractors Fail:* LFTs for liver; BUN for kidney; CBC for blood.
> * *Core Takeaway:* Check CPK for rhabdomyolysis.
---
, *QUESTION 6:*
A patient receiving IV heparin has an aPTT of 120 seconds. The nurse should:
A) Continue infusion
B) Decrease infusion rate
C) Increase infusion rate
D) Administer protamine sulfate
> 🎯 *CORRECT ANSWER:* B) Decrease infusion rate
> 💡 *CLINICAL RATIONALE:*
> * *Why It's Right:* Therapeutic aPTT is 1.5-2.5 times control (60-100 seconds).
> * *Why Distractors Fail:* Continue or increase worsens bleeding risk.
> * *Core Takeaway:* aPTT >100 requires rate reduction.
---
*QUESTION 7:*
A patient is prescribed clopidogrel after a stent placement. The nurse should educate about:
A) Bleeding precautions
B) Bradycardia
C) Hypotension
D) Hyperglycemia
> 🎯 *CORRECT ANSWER:* A) Bleeding precautions
> 💡 *CLINICAL RATIONALE:*
> * *Why It's Right:* Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet, increasing bleeding risk.
> * *Why Distractors Fail:* Bradycardia, hypotension, and hyperglycemia are not typical.
> * *Core Takeaway:* Monitor for signs of bleeding.
