WGU C155 Pathopharmacological
Foundations Premium Study Bundle |
OA Study Guide, PA Guide 2026/2027 –
Verified Q&As with Detailed Rationales
(Test Bank Bundle - 114 Questions)
---
*QUESTION 1:*
A patient prescribed warfarin has an INR of 5.2. What is the priority nursing action?
A) Administer vitamin K as ordered
B) Hold the next dose and notify the provider
C) Increase the warfarin dose
D) Check the patient's platelet count
> 🎯 *CORRECT ANSWER:* B) Hold the next dose and notify the provider
> 💡 *CLINICAL RATIONALE:*
> * *Why It's Right:* INR >5 indicates high bleeding risk requiring provider intervention.
> * *Why Distractors Fail:* Vitamin K is for severe bleeding; increasing dose worsens risk.
> * *Core Takeaway:* Elevated INR requires immediate dose hold.
---
*QUESTION 2:*
,A patient with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which lab value requires close monitoring?
A) Serum sodium
B) Serum potassium
C) Serum calcium
D) Serum magnesium
> 🎯 *CORRECT ANSWER:* B) Serum potassium
> 💡 *CLINICAL RATIONALE:*
> * *Why It's Right:* Furosemide causes hypokalemia via renal potassium loss.
> * *Why Distractors Fail:* Sodium, calcium, and magnesium are less affected.
> * *Core Takeaway:* Loop diuretics deplete potassium.
---
*QUESTION 3:*
A patient is started on an ACE inhibitor. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor for closely?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Hypokalemia
C) Hyponatremia
D) Hypercalcemia
> 🎯 *CORRECT ANSWER:* A) Hyperkalemia
> 💡 *CLINICAL RATIONALE:*
> * *Why It's Right:* ACE inhibitors reduce aldosterone, increasing potassium retention.
> * *Why Distractors Fail:* Hypokalemia, hyponatremia, and hypercalcemia are not typical.
> * *Core Takeaway:* ACE inhibitors raise serum potassium.
---
,*QUESTION 4:*
A patient on metformin for type 2 diabetes is scheduled for surgery. The nurse should anticipate holding
the medication:
A) 24 hours before surgery
B) 48 hours before surgery
C) The morning of surgery only
D) It does not need to be held
> 🎯 *CORRECT ANSWER:* B) 48 hours before surgery
> 💡 *CLINICAL RATIONALE:*
> * *Why It's Right:* Metformin is held to prevent lactic acidosis perioperatively.
> * *Why Distractors Fail:* 24 hours is insufficient; morning hold is too late.
> * *Core Takeaway:* Metformin is held 48 hours pre-surgery.
---
*QUESTION 5:*
A patient receiving IV vancomycin reports flushing and a rash on the neck. The nurse recognizes this as:
A) Anaphylactic shock
B) Red man syndrome
C) Stevens-Johnson syndrome
D) Serum sickness
> 🎯 *CORRECT ANSWER:* B) Red man syndrome
> 💡 *CLINICAL RATIONALE:*
> * *Why It's Right:* Rapid vancomycin infusion causes histamine release.
> * *Why Distractors Fail:* Anaphylaxis involves hypotension; SJS is severe skin sloughing.
> * *Core Takeaway:* Infuse vancomycin over at least 60 minutes.
, ---
*QUESTION 6:*
A patient with asthma is prescribed albuterol. The primary mechanism of action is:
A) Beta-2 adrenergic agonism
B) Muscarinic receptor antagonism
C) Phosphodiesterase inhibition
D) Leukotriene receptor blockade
> 🎯 *CORRECT ANSWER:* A) Beta-2 adrenergic agonism
> 💡 *CLINICAL RATIONALE:*
> * *Why It's Right:* Bronchodilation via smooth muscle relaxation.
> * *Why Distractors Fail:* Ipratropium is anticholinergic; roflumilast is a PDE inhibitor.
> * *Core Takeaway:* Albuterol is a bronchodilator.
---
*QUESTION 7:*
A patient on digoxin presents with nausea, vomiting, and vision changes. The nurse suspects:
A) Digoxin toxicity
B) A normal side effect
C) An allergic reaction
D) A viral infection
> 🎯 *CORRECT ANSWER:* A) Digoxin toxicity
> 💡 *CLINICAL RATIONALE:*
> * *Why It's Right:* Classic GI and visual signs of digitalis toxicity.
> * *Why Distractors Fail:* Nausea/vomiting are not normal; allergy is rash; infection is possible but less
likely.
> * *Core Takeaway:* Digoxin toxicity presents with GI and visual symptoms.
Foundations Premium Study Bundle |
OA Study Guide, PA Guide 2026/2027 –
Verified Q&As with Detailed Rationales
(Test Bank Bundle - 114 Questions)
---
*QUESTION 1:*
A patient prescribed warfarin has an INR of 5.2. What is the priority nursing action?
A) Administer vitamin K as ordered
B) Hold the next dose and notify the provider
C) Increase the warfarin dose
D) Check the patient's platelet count
> 🎯 *CORRECT ANSWER:* B) Hold the next dose and notify the provider
> 💡 *CLINICAL RATIONALE:*
> * *Why It's Right:* INR >5 indicates high bleeding risk requiring provider intervention.
> * *Why Distractors Fail:* Vitamin K is for severe bleeding; increasing dose worsens risk.
> * *Core Takeaway:* Elevated INR requires immediate dose hold.
---
*QUESTION 2:*
,A patient with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which lab value requires close monitoring?
A) Serum sodium
B) Serum potassium
C) Serum calcium
D) Serum magnesium
> 🎯 *CORRECT ANSWER:* B) Serum potassium
> 💡 *CLINICAL RATIONALE:*
> * *Why It's Right:* Furosemide causes hypokalemia via renal potassium loss.
> * *Why Distractors Fail:* Sodium, calcium, and magnesium are less affected.
> * *Core Takeaway:* Loop diuretics deplete potassium.
---
*QUESTION 3:*
A patient is started on an ACE inhibitor. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor for closely?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Hypokalemia
C) Hyponatremia
D) Hypercalcemia
> 🎯 *CORRECT ANSWER:* A) Hyperkalemia
> 💡 *CLINICAL RATIONALE:*
> * *Why It's Right:* ACE inhibitors reduce aldosterone, increasing potassium retention.
> * *Why Distractors Fail:* Hypokalemia, hyponatremia, and hypercalcemia are not typical.
> * *Core Takeaway:* ACE inhibitors raise serum potassium.
---
,*QUESTION 4:*
A patient on metformin for type 2 diabetes is scheduled for surgery. The nurse should anticipate holding
the medication:
A) 24 hours before surgery
B) 48 hours before surgery
C) The morning of surgery only
D) It does not need to be held
> 🎯 *CORRECT ANSWER:* B) 48 hours before surgery
> 💡 *CLINICAL RATIONALE:*
> * *Why It's Right:* Metformin is held to prevent lactic acidosis perioperatively.
> * *Why Distractors Fail:* 24 hours is insufficient; morning hold is too late.
> * *Core Takeaway:* Metformin is held 48 hours pre-surgery.
---
*QUESTION 5:*
A patient receiving IV vancomycin reports flushing and a rash on the neck. The nurse recognizes this as:
A) Anaphylactic shock
B) Red man syndrome
C) Stevens-Johnson syndrome
D) Serum sickness
> 🎯 *CORRECT ANSWER:* B) Red man syndrome
> 💡 *CLINICAL RATIONALE:*
> * *Why It's Right:* Rapid vancomycin infusion causes histamine release.
> * *Why Distractors Fail:* Anaphylaxis involves hypotension; SJS is severe skin sloughing.
> * *Core Takeaway:* Infuse vancomycin over at least 60 minutes.
, ---
*QUESTION 6:*
A patient with asthma is prescribed albuterol. The primary mechanism of action is:
A) Beta-2 adrenergic agonism
B) Muscarinic receptor antagonism
C) Phosphodiesterase inhibition
D) Leukotriene receptor blockade
> 🎯 *CORRECT ANSWER:* A) Beta-2 adrenergic agonism
> 💡 *CLINICAL RATIONALE:*
> * *Why It's Right:* Bronchodilation via smooth muscle relaxation.
> * *Why Distractors Fail:* Ipratropium is anticholinergic; roflumilast is a PDE inhibitor.
> * *Core Takeaway:* Albuterol is a bronchodilator.
---
*QUESTION 7:*
A patient on digoxin presents with nausea, vomiting, and vision changes. The nurse suspects:
A) Digoxin toxicity
B) A normal side effect
C) An allergic reaction
D) A viral infection
> 🎯 *CORRECT ANSWER:* A) Digoxin toxicity
> 💡 *CLINICAL RATIONALE:*
> * *Why It's Right:* Classic GI and visual signs of digitalis toxicity.
> * *Why Distractors Fail:* Nausea/vomiting are not normal; allergy is rash; infection is possible but less
likely.
> * *Core Takeaway:* Digoxin toxicity presents with GI and visual symptoms.
