Gynecologic Health Care – Test Bank
(4th Edition, Schuiling and Likis) |
Complete Question and Answer
2026/2027 – Verified Q&As with
Detailed Rationales (Test Bank Bundle -
78 Questions)
---
*QUESTION 1:*
A 25-year-old woman presents with dysmenorrhea that has been worsening over the past year. The pain
is relieved with NSAIDs. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Endometriosis
B) Primary dysmenorrhea
C) Pelvic inflammatory disease
D) Ovarian cyst
> 🎯 *CORRECT ANSWER:* B) Primary dysmenorrhea
> 💡 *CLINICAL RATIONALE:*
> * *Why It's Right:* Relief with NSAIDs and worsening pain suggests primary dysmenorrhea.
> * *Why Distractors Fail:* Endometriosis often has associated symptoms; PID has fever; ovarian cysts
have acute pain.
> * *Core Takeaway:* Prostaglandin-mediated pain responds to NSAIDs.
,---
*QUESTION 2:*
A 32-year-old woman reports irregular menstrual cycles and hirsutism. Which lab finding is most
consistent with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)?
A) Elevated FSH
B) Elevated LH/FSH ratio
C) Low testosterone
D) Low estrogen
> 🎯 *CORRECT ANSWER:* B) Elevated LH/FSH ratio
> 💡 *CLINICAL RATIONALE:*
> * *Why It's Right:* PCOS is characterized by elevated LH and LH/FSH ratio.
> * *Why Distractors Fail:* Elevated FSH is seen in ovarian failure; testosterone is typically high.
> * *Core Takeaway:* PCOS is a hyperandrogenic state.
---
*QUESTION 3:*
A 45-year-old woman reports heavy menstrual bleeding and pelvic pain. Transvaginal ultrasound reveals
a heterogeneous endometrial stripe. The priority next step is:
A) Endometrial biopsy
B) Oral contraceptives
C) Hysterectomy
D) MRI of the pelvis
> 🎯 *CORRECT ANSWER:* A) Endometrial biopsy
> 💡 *CLINICAL RATIONALE:*
> * *Why It's Right:* A heterogeneous stripe in a perimenopausal woman requires sampling.
,> * *Why Distractors Fail:* OCPs may be used but not first; hysterectomy is surgical; MRI is not
diagnostic.
> * *Core Takeaway:* Rule out endometrial hyperplasia or cancer.
---
*QUESTION 4:*
A 28-year-old woman presents with pelvic pain, dysuria, and vaginal discharge. Which finding on pelvic
exam is most consistent with pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?
A) Cervical motion tenderness
B) A normal cervix
C) A painless mass
D) Vaginal atrophy
> 🎯 *CORRECT ANSWER:* A) Cervical motion tenderness
> 💡 *CLINICAL RATIONALE:*
> * *Why It's Right:* Cervical motion tenderness is a classic sign of PID.
> * *Why Distractors Fail:* Normal cervix and painless masses do not suggest PID; atrophy is associated
with menopause.
> * *Core Takeaway:* Cervical motion tenderness suggests pelvic infection.
---
*QUESTION 5:*
A 55-year-old postmenopausal woman has vaginal dryness and dyspareunia. The most appropriate
treatment is:
A) Systemic hormone therapy
B) Vaginal estrogen
C) Oral antibiotics
D) Antifungal cream
, > 🎯 *CORRECT ANSWER:* B) Vaginal estrogen
> 💡 *CLINICAL RATIONALE:*
> * *Why It's Right:* Vaginal estrogen effectively treats genitourinary syndrome of menopause.
> * *Why Distractors Fail:* Systemic therapy is not first-line; antibiotics and antifungals are for
infections.
> * *Core Takeaway:* Topical estrogen is preferred for localized symptoms.
---
*QUESTION 6:*
A 30-year-old woman is diagnosed with a cervical infection caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. The first-
line treatment is:
A) Doxycycline
B) Metronidazole
C) Ciprofloxacin
D) Amoxicillin
> 🎯 *CORRECT ANSWER:* A) Doxycycline
> 💡 *CLINICAL RATIONALE:*
> * *Why It's Right:* Doxycycline is the first-line treatment for chlamydia.
> * *Why Distractors Fail:* Metronidazole is for trichomoniasis; ciprofloxacin is for gonorrhea;
amoxicillin is not first-line.
> * *Core Takeaway:* Doxycycline is the standard of care.
---
*QUESTION 7:*
A 22-year-old woman reports acute pelvic pain and a positive pregnancy test. Transvaginal ultrasound
shows no intrauterine pregnancy and an adnexal mass. The most likely diagnosis is:
A) Ovarian torsion
(4th Edition, Schuiling and Likis) |
Complete Question and Answer
2026/2027 – Verified Q&As with
Detailed Rationales (Test Bank Bundle -
78 Questions)
---
*QUESTION 1:*
A 25-year-old woman presents with dysmenorrhea that has been worsening over the past year. The pain
is relieved with NSAIDs. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Endometriosis
B) Primary dysmenorrhea
C) Pelvic inflammatory disease
D) Ovarian cyst
> 🎯 *CORRECT ANSWER:* B) Primary dysmenorrhea
> 💡 *CLINICAL RATIONALE:*
> * *Why It's Right:* Relief with NSAIDs and worsening pain suggests primary dysmenorrhea.
> * *Why Distractors Fail:* Endometriosis often has associated symptoms; PID has fever; ovarian cysts
have acute pain.
> * *Core Takeaway:* Prostaglandin-mediated pain responds to NSAIDs.
,---
*QUESTION 2:*
A 32-year-old woman reports irregular menstrual cycles and hirsutism. Which lab finding is most
consistent with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)?
A) Elevated FSH
B) Elevated LH/FSH ratio
C) Low testosterone
D) Low estrogen
> 🎯 *CORRECT ANSWER:* B) Elevated LH/FSH ratio
> 💡 *CLINICAL RATIONALE:*
> * *Why It's Right:* PCOS is characterized by elevated LH and LH/FSH ratio.
> * *Why Distractors Fail:* Elevated FSH is seen in ovarian failure; testosterone is typically high.
> * *Core Takeaway:* PCOS is a hyperandrogenic state.
---
*QUESTION 3:*
A 45-year-old woman reports heavy menstrual bleeding and pelvic pain. Transvaginal ultrasound reveals
a heterogeneous endometrial stripe. The priority next step is:
A) Endometrial biopsy
B) Oral contraceptives
C) Hysterectomy
D) MRI of the pelvis
> 🎯 *CORRECT ANSWER:* A) Endometrial biopsy
> 💡 *CLINICAL RATIONALE:*
> * *Why It's Right:* A heterogeneous stripe in a perimenopausal woman requires sampling.
,> * *Why Distractors Fail:* OCPs may be used but not first; hysterectomy is surgical; MRI is not
diagnostic.
> * *Core Takeaway:* Rule out endometrial hyperplasia or cancer.
---
*QUESTION 4:*
A 28-year-old woman presents with pelvic pain, dysuria, and vaginal discharge. Which finding on pelvic
exam is most consistent with pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?
A) Cervical motion tenderness
B) A normal cervix
C) A painless mass
D) Vaginal atrophy
> 🎯 *CORRECT ANSWER:* A) Cervical motion tenderness
> 💡 *CLINICAL RATIONALE:*
> * *Why It's Right:* Cervical motion tenderness is a classic sign of PID.
> * *Why Distractors Fail:* Normal cervix and painless masses do not suggest PID; atrophy is associated
with menopause.
> * *Core Takeaway:* Cervical motion tenderness suggests pelvic infection.
---
*QUESTION 5:*
A 55-year-old postmenopausal woman has vaginal dryness and dyspareunia. The most appropriate
treatment is:
A) Systemic hormone therapy
B) Vaginal estrogen
C) Oral antibiotics
D) Antifungal cream
, > 🎯 *CORRECT ANSWER:* B) Vaginal estrogen
> 💡 *CLINICAL RATIONALE:*
> * *Why It's Right:* Vaginal estrogen effectively treats genitourinary syndrome of menopause.
> * *Why Distractors Fail:* Systemic therapy is not first-line; antibiotics and antifungals are for
infections.
> * *Core Takeaway:* Topical estrogen is preferred for localized symptoms.
---
*QUESTION 6:*
A 30-year-old woman is diagnosed with a cervical infection caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. The first-
line treatment is:
A) Doxycycline
B) Metronidazole
C) Ciprofloxacin
D) Amoxicillin
> 🎯 *CORRECT ANSWER:* A) Doxycycline
> 💡 *CLINICAL RATIONALE:*
> * *Why It's Right:* Doxycycline is the first-line treatment for chlamydia.
> * *Why Distractors Fail:* Metronidazole is for trichomoniasis; ciprofloxacin is for gonorrhea;
amoxicillin is not first-line.
> * *Core Takeaway:* Doxycycline is the standard of care.
---
*QUESTION 7:*
A 22-year-old woman reports acute pelvic pain and a positive pregnancy test. Transvaginal ultrasound
shows no intrauterine pregnancy and an adnexal mass. The most likely diagnosis is:
A) Ovarian torsion
