Correct Answers 2025/2026 (Rated A+)
150 Practice Questions & Verified Answers
SECTION 1: ROLE & RESPONSIBILITIES OF THE FIRST RESPONDER (Q1-20)
Q1. What is the primary role of a FREC 3 qualified first responder?
A) To diagnose medical conditions
B) To provide definitive hospital care
C) To provide immediate emergency care until advanced help arrives
D) To prescribe medication
Answer: C
Rationale: The FREC 3 responder provides initial, life-saving care and stabilises the patient until
ambulance or hospital staff take over . This aligns with the PHEM skills framework at descriptor
level D .
Q2. Which piece of legislation primarily governs consent in emergency care?
A) Health and Safety at Work Act 1974
B) Mental Capacity Act 2005
C) Data Protection Act 2018
D) Equality Act 2010
Answer: B
Rationale: The Mental Capacity Act 2005 covers consent, including implied consent in
emergencies when a patient is unconscious . A competent adult has the right to refuse
treatment; documentation is essential .
Q3. When can you legally treat an unconscious patient without their consent?
,A) Never
B) Only if family agrees
C) Under the principle of "best interests" (implied consent)
D) Only if police authorise it
Answer: C
Rationale: In an emergency, treatment can be given without explicit consent if the patient is
unconscious and treatment is in their best interests . This is known as implied consent .
Q4. Which organisation sets the national standards for FREC 3 in the UK?
A) NHS England
B) Qualsafe Awards
C) Red Cross only
D) St John Ambulance only
Answer: B
Rationale: Qualsafe Awards is the Ofqual-regulated awarding body for FREC qualifications .
The qualification is also clinically endorsed by The Royal College of Surgeons of Edinburgh –
Faculty of Pre-Hospital Care (FPHC) .
Q5. What is the correct order of the chain of survival?
A) Defibrillation, CPR, Call 999, Recovery position
B) Call 999, Early CPR, Early defibrillation, Advanced care
C) Recovery position, Defibrillation, Call 999, CPR
D) Advanced care, Call 999, CPR, Defibrillation
Answer: B
Rationale: Early access (call), early CPR, early defibrillation, early advanced care . This
sequence maximises survival in cardiac arrest.
Q6. A patient refuses treatment but is alert and oriented. What should you do?
A) Treat them anyway
,B) Respect their refusal and document it
C) Call police to force treatment
D) Restrain them for their safety
Answer: B
Rationale: Competent adults have the right to refuse treatment. Document everything .
Q7. What is the purpose of the "primary survey"?
A) To diagnose the illness
B) To identify and treat life-threatening conditions
C) To take a full medical history
D) To move the patient to hospital
Answer: B
Rationale: The primary survey finds immediate threats to life using the ABCDE approach . Your
first priority is to assess and manage life-threatening conditions .
Q8. What does "C" in the ABCDE primary survey stand for?
A) Chest compressions
B) Circulation (check pulse, bleeding)
C) Cardiac arrest
D) Cervical spine
Answer: B
Rationale: Circulation – check pulse, capillary refill, control major bleeding . The primary survey
follows Danger, Response, Airway, Breathing, Circulation (DRABC) .
Q9. When should you wear disposable gloves?
A) Only if blood is visible
B) Whenever there is potential contact with bodily fluids
C) Only during CPR
D) Gloves are optional
, Answer: B
Rationale: Standard precautions – wear gloves for any potential exposure to bodily fluids to
protect yourself and the patient .
Q10. What does "clinical governance" mean for a first responder?
A) Getting paid for each call
B) Having protocols, training, and accountability for your actions
C) Working only in hospitals
D) Avoiding paperwork
Answer: B
Rationale: Clinical governance ensures quality, safety, and continuous improvement in
pre-hospital care . First responders must work within established protocols .
Q11. What information must you give to the ambulance control when calling 999?
A) Only your name
B) Location, nature of emergency, condition, hazards, number of patients
C) Patient's full medical history
D) Only the patient's age
Answer: B
Rationale: Provide location, incident type, patient status, hazards, and number of casualties .
Q12. What is the normal adult respiratory rate at rest?
A) 4-8 breaths per minute
B) 12-20 breaths per minute
C) 25-30 breaths per minute
D) 30-40 breaths per minute
Answer: B