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NUR 6121 Final Exam V2 | NUR 6121 Advanced Nursing II | Q&A with Rationale (NUR6121 Final Exam) | William Paterson University

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NUR 6121 Final Exam V2 | NUR 6121 Advanced Nursing II | Q&A with Rationale (NUR6121 Final Exam) | William Paterson University

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NUR 6121 Final Exam V2 | NUR 6121
Advanced Nursing II | Q&A with Rationale
(NUR6121 Final Exam) | William Paterson
University
1. A 62-year-old male presents with symptoms of Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH). Which

of the following findings on a Digital Rectal Exam (DRE) would be most consistent with this

diagnosis?

A. Hard, nodular, and asymmetrical gland


B. Soft, boggy, and extremely tender gland


C. Firm, smooth, and symmetrically enlarged gland


D. Small, atrophied, and non-palpable gland


Answer: C


Rationale: In Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia, the prostate gland is typically characterized by

a firm, smooth, and symmetrical enlargement without nodules. A hard or nodular gland

would increase suspicion for prostate cancer, while a boggy and tender gland suggests

acute prostatitis. Healthcare providers must differentiate these findings to determine if

further testing like PSA or biopsy is immediately warranted.

,2. A patient with a history of Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) presents with

increased sputum purulence and dyspnea. According to the GOLD guidelines, which

medication is indicated for an acute exacerbation?

A. Long-acting Beta Agonist (LABA) monotherapy


B. Inhaled Corticosteroids as the sole agent


C. Short-acting Bronchodilator and Systemic Corticosteroids


D. Oral Leukotriene modifiers


Answer: C


Rationale: The management of an acute COPD exacerbation typically involves the use of

short-acting bronchodilators, such as Albuterol, and a course of systemic corticosteroids.

These interventions aim to reduce airway inflammation and provide rapid relief of

bronchoconstriction. Antibiotics are also considered if there is increased sputum purulence

and volume, suggesting a bacterial infection.


3. Which lab value is the most sensitive indicator for diagnosing Iron Deficiency Anemia (IDA)

in an adult patient?

A. Serum Iron


B. Serum Ferritin


C. Total Iron Binding Capacity (TIBC)


D. Hemoglobin level

,Answer: B


Rationale: Serum Ferritin reflects the total body iron stores and is generally considered

the most sensitive and specific test for iron deficiency. Low ferritin levels indicate depleted

iron reserves even before the hemoglobin levels drop significantly. This test helps

clinicians distinguish IDA from anemia of chronic disease, where ferritin is often normal or

elevated.


4. A 45-year-old female presents with complaints of fatigue, cold intolerance, and weight

gain. Her TSH is 12.4 mIU/L and Free T4 is low. What is the standard starting dose for

Levothyroxine in a healthy adult?

A. 12.5 mcg daily


B. 200 mcg daily


C. 50 mcg daily for all patients


D. 1.6 mcg/kg/day


Answer: D


Rationale: For healthy, non-elderly adults with primary hypothyroidism, the

recommended full replacement dose of Levothyroxine is approximately 1.6 mcg per

kilogram of body weight per day. In elderly patients or those with underlying cardiac

disease, clinicians should ‘start low and go slow,’ often beginning with 12.5 to 25 mcg.

Monitoring involves checking the TSH level every 6 to 8 weeks until a stable euthyroid

state is achieved.

, 5. The nurse practitioner is managing a patient with Type 2 Diabetes who has a current A1c of

8.5% on Metformin. The patient has a history of atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease

(ASCVD). Which class of medication is preferred for addition to their regimen?

A. GLP-1 Receptor Agonists


B. DPP-4 Inhibitors


C. Sulfonylureas


D. Thiazolidinediones


Answer: A


Rationale: Current ADA guidelines recommend GLP-1 receptor agonists with proven

cardiovascular benefit or SGLT2 inhibitors for patients with established ASCVD regardless

of A1c. These medications have been shown to reduce the risk of major adverse

cardiovascular events in clinical trials. Selecting these agents provides glycemic control

while simultaneously addressing the patient’s specific comorbidity profile.


6. A 30-year-old woman reports a sudden onset of severe right lower quadrant abdominal

pain accompanied by nausea. On examination, she has positive McBurney’s sign and

Rebound tenderness. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Ectopic Pregnancy


B. Pelvic Inflammatory Disease


C. Ovarian Torsion


D. Acute Appendicitis

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Subido en
7 de julio de 2026
Número de páginas
31
Escrito en
2025/2026
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Examen
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