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Examen

CALIFORNIA OPTOMETRY LAW EXAM CONCLUDING REVIEW SHEET PRACTICE SOLUTION BUNDLED FULLY VERIFIED ONE HUNDRED PERCENT PASS GUARANTEED

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CALIFORNIA OPTOMETRY LAW EXAM CONCLUDING REVIEW SHEET PRACTICE SOLUTION BUNDLED FULLY VERIFIED ONE HUNDRED PERCENT PASS GUARANTEED

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CALIFORNIA OPTOMETRY LAW EXAM
CONCLUDING REVIEW SHEET PRACTICE
SOLUTION BUNDLED FULLY VERIFIED ONE
HUNDRED PERCENT PASS GUARANTEED


1. Under the California Optometry Practice Act, a licensed optometrist with Therapeutic
Pharmaceutical Agent (TPA) certification may prescribe oral medications for the treatment of
glaucoma. However, the statute imposes a specific restriction regarding the use of beta-blockers in
patients with certain systemic conditions. Which of the following best describes that restriction?

A. Beta-blockers are absolutely contraindicated in any patient with a history of asthma.
B. A written collaborative agreement with a physician is required before prescribing beta-blockers to patients
with reactive airway disease.
C. The optometrist must document a consultation with the patient's primary care provider within 30 days of
initiating beta-blocker therapy.
D. Beta-blockers are prohibited for patients with a known hypersensitivity to any component of the formulation,
but no additional restriction exists beyond standard prescribing guidelines.

Answer: B
Rationale: California law requires optometrists with TPA certification to have a written collaborative
agreement with a physician when prescribing beta-blockers to patients with certain systemic conditions
like reactive airway disease. This ensures coordinated care. Option A is too absolute; the law does not
categorically prohibit beta-blockers in asthma. Option C misstates the timeline and requirement. Option
D ignores the specific collaborative agreement requirement.


2. A complaint is filed with the California State Board of Optometry alleging that an optometrist
failed to obtain informed consent prior to performing a LASIK co-management procedure. Under
California law, which of the following elements is NOT required for valid informed consent in this
context?

A. Disclosure of the nature and purpose of the procedure.
B. Description of the material risks and potential complications.
C. Provision of a written list of all alternative treatments, including those not offered by the optometrist.
D. Reasonable opportunity for the patient to ask questions and receive answers.

Answer: C
Rationale: California's informed consent doctrine requires disclosure of the nature, purpose, risks, and
alternatives, but does not mandate a written list of every alternative treatment, especially those not
offered by the provider. The standard is what a reasonable patient would need to know. Options A, B,
and D are core elements of informed consent under both statutory and case law.




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,3. An optometrist in California is audited by the Board and found to have incomplete patient
records for 15% of sampled files. The deficiencies include missing visual field test results and lack
of documentation of the date of the last comprehensive eye examination. Which of the following
statements regarding recordkeeping requirements under California law is correct?


A. The optometrist must retain patient records for a minimum of 10 years after the last patient encounter.
B. The optometrist may correct the deficiencies by adding the missing information retroactively, as long as the
additions are clearly marked as late entries.
C. The Board may impose a civil penalty of up to $5,000 per violation, but cannot revoke the license for
recordkeeping deficiencies alone.
D. The optometrist must provide copies of the records to the Board within 15 business days of the request, but
may charge a reasonable fee.

Answer: B
Rationale: California law allows corrections to patient records if they are clearly identified as late
entries, dated, and signed. Option A is incorrect because the retention period is 7 years (or until the
patient's 18th birthday, whichever is longer). Option C is false; the Board can revoke a license for
unprofessional conduct, including recordkeeping violations. Option D is incorrect because the Board
may require records without charge.


4. A newly licensed optometrist in California wishes to advertise specialty services in
orthokeratology. Which of the following advertising practices is explicitly prohibited by the
California Optometry Practice Act and regulations?

A. Using the term "specialist" in advertising without completing a residency program accredited by the
Accreditation Council on Optometric Education (ACOE).
B. Offering a free initial consultation for orthokeratology services.
C. Claiming that orthokeratology can permanently reduce myopia based on a single published study.
D. Including testimonials from patients in the advertisement without a disclaimer that results may vary.

Answer: A
Rationale: The California Code of Regulations prohibits optometrists from using the term "specialist"
unless they have completed an ACOE-accredited residency in that area. Option B is not prohibited; free
consultations are allowed if not misleading. Option C is false advertising (unsubstantiated claim), but
the specific prohibition on "specialist" is more direct. Option D is regulated but not absolutely
prohibited; disclaimers may be required.


5. During a Board-conducted peer review of an optometrist's practice, it is discovered that the
optometrist has been prescribing topical antibiotics for patients with conjunctivitis without
documenting a slit lamp examination. Which of the following best describes the legal implications
under California law?

A. The optometrist is in violation of the standard of care, but no specific legal requirement mandates slit lamp
examination for conjunctivitis.
B. The optometrist must have performed a slit lamp examination to rule out more serious conditions; failure to
do so constitutes negligence per se.
C. The optometrist's actions are permissible as long as the diagnosis of conjunctivitis was clinically evident
without slit lamp.




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,D. The optometrist must refer any patient with suspected conjunctivitis to an ophthalmologist if slit lamp is not
available.

Answer: B
Rationale: California law and regulations require a slit lamp examination for any patient receiving a
diagnosis of anterior segment disease, including conjunctivitis, to rule out complications such as
keratitis. Failure to perform this examination is a breach of the standard of care and may be considered
negligence per se if it violates a statute. Options A and C ignore this mandatory requirement. Option D
is not required by law.


6. An optometrist in California is considering employing a technician to perform automated visual
field testing under the optometrist's supervision. Which of the following statements about
delegation of tasks to unlicensed personnel is accurate under California law?

A. Unlicensed personnel may perform any diagnostic test as long as the optometrist is physically present in the
office.
B. The optometrist must provide direct supervision (i.e., in the same room) for all tasks performed by unlicensed
personnel.
C. Unlicensed personnel may perform automated perimetry if the optometrist has provided appropriate training
and is available for consultation.
D. Unlicensed personnel are prohibited from performing any diagnostic tests; only licensed optometric
assistants may do so.

Answer: C
Rationale: California regulations allow optometrists to delegate certain tasks to unlicensed personnel if
they are properly trained and the optometrist is available for consultation. Direct (in-room) supervision
is not required for automated perimetry. Option A is too broad; not all tasks can be delegated. Option D
is false; unlicensed personnel can perform some tests under supervision.


7. A patient presents with a red eye and the optometrist diagnoses iritis. Under California law,
which of the following therapeutic agents may the optometrist prescribe for this condition
WITHOUT a collaborative agreement with a physician?

A. Prednisolone acetate 1% ophthalmic suspension.
B. Atropine 1% ophthalmic solution.
C. Dorzolamide 2% ophthalmic solution.
D. Moxifloxacin 0.5% ophthalmic solution.

Answer: A
Rationale: Optometrists with TPA certification in California may prescribe topical corticosteroids like
prednisolone for anterior uveitis without a collaborative agreement. Atropine is also a standard
treatment for iritis, but its prescribing may require a collaborative agreement for certain conditions.
Dorzolamide is for glaucoma, not iritis. Moxifloxacin is an antibiotic not indicated for iritis.


8. The California Optometry Practice Act includes provisions for the use of therapeutic lasers.
Which of the following procedures is within the scope of practice for a California optometrist who
has completed the required laser certification training?

A. Selective laser trabeculoplasty (SLT) for open-angle glaucoma.



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, B. Photorefractive keratectomy (PRK) for refractive error correction.
C. Laser peripheral iridotomy for narrow-angle glaucoma.
D. YAG capsulotomy for posterior capsule opacification.

Answer: C
Rationale: California optometrists with laser certification may perform laser peripheral iridotomy (LPI)
for narrow-angle glaucoma. SLT, PRK, and YAG capsulotomy are not within the optometric scope in
California; these are reserved for ophthalmologists. LPI is explicitly allowed under the statute for
optometrists who meet the training requirements.


9. An optometrist receives a subpoena duces tecum requesting patient records for a malpractice
lawsuit. The patient has not signed a release. Which of the following actions is most appropriate
under California law?

A. Comply fully with the subpoena because it is a court order.
B. Refuse to produce the records until the patient signs a written authorization.
C. Produce the records only if the subpoena is accompanied by a court order or the patient's written consent.
D. Notify the patient and allow 15 days for the patient to file a motion to quash before producing the records.

Answer: C
Rationale: Under California law, a subpoena duces tecum alone is not sufficient to compel production of
medical records without the patient's written authorization or a court order. The optometrist must
protect patient confidentiality. Option A is incorrect because a subpoena is not a court order. Option B
is too absolute; a court order would suffice. Option D describes the process for a subpoena in a criminal
case or with a special notice, but not generally.


10. An optometrist in California is found to have engaged in repeated acts of gross negligence in
the care of several patients. The Board initiates disciplinary proceedings. Which of the following
penalties is the Board authorized to impose under the California Optometry Practice Act?

A. A civil penalty of up to $10,000 per violation.
B. Revocation of the optometrist's license.
C. Mandatory completion of a remediation program approved by the Board.
D. All of the above.

Answer: D
Rationale: The California Optometry Practice Act grants the Board authority to impose a range of
penalties for gross negligence, including civil penalties up to $10,000 per violation, license revocation,
and mandatory remediation. Therefore, all options are correct. The Board has discretion to choose the
appropriate penalty based on the severity of the conduct.


11. Under the California Optometry Act, a licensed optometrist who holds a Therapeutic
Pharmaceutical Agent (TPA) certificate may prescribe oral medications for the treatment of
glaucoma. However, the Act includes specific restrictions on the use of certain classes of drugs.
Which of the following statements accurately describes a restriction imposed by the California
Business and Professions Code regarding the prescription of oral medications for glaucoma?

A. Optometrists may prescribe any oral beta-blocker for glaucoma, but must first consult with a physician if the
patient has a history of asthma.



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Información del documento

Subido en
6 de julio de 2026
Número de páginas
54
Escrito en
2025/2026
Tipo
Examen
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