ABFAS Rearfoot Exam | Questions and Answers with Verified Solutions | Latest
2026 Update
Q: A 25 year old ballet dancer presents with an 8 month history of ankle pain following an
ankle sprain. On
physical exam there is joint swelling and radio graphs are unremarkable physical therapy
and NSAIDs
have not reduced her symptoms. What is the next appropriate step in management of this
patient?
Answer:
MRI
Q: For a one-year-old patient with calcaneal valgus, what is an acceptable treatment plan?
Answer:
Manipulation and serial casting
Q: A 25-year-old female sustained an inversion ankle sprain 24 hours ago. The area is
severely edematous
and ecchymosis. Diagnostic tests reveal rupture of the lateral collateral ligaments. What
should the
treatment consist of at this time?
Answer:
Compression dressing 24 - 48 hours
Q: Which lateral ankle ligaments are intracapsular/extracapsular?
Answer:
ATFL - Intracapsular
CFL - Extracapsular
PTFL - Strongest, deepest, usually doesn't rupture
, Q: A 30-year-old male complains of a painful right ankle after sustaining a forced
plantarflexion injury.
Plantarflexion of the foot and dorsiflexion of the hallux greatly exacerbate the symptoms.
What is the
most probable diagnosis?
Answer:
Fracture of the posterior tubercle of the talus.
Q: Which procedure would be the most appropriate management strategy for treatment of a
rigid flatfoot
in an infant diagnosed with a pediatric congenital vertical talus deformity?
Answer:
1. Manipulation and
weekly serial casting for 5 weeks 2. Achilles tendon lengthening and TN joint pinning.
Q: Following a tendon reconstruction of the ankle for lateral ligamentous instability a
30-year-old female
developed a deformity of the big toe. On exam she has full range of motion of the MP joint
and good
ankle stability. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer:
Use of peroneus longus tendon for
reconstruction.
Q: What is the first step in the open reduction and internal fixation of an ankle pilon
fracture?
Answer:
Restoration of length and fixation of the fibular fracture.
2026 Update
Q: A 25 year old ballet dancer presents with an 8 month history of ankle pain following an
ankle sprain. On
physical exam there is joint swelling and radio graphs are unremarkable physical therapy
and NSAIDs
have not reduced her symptoms. What is the next appropriate step in management of this
patient?
Answer:
MRI
Q: For a one-year-old patient with calcaneal valgus, what is an acceptable treatment plan?
Answer:
Manipulation and serial casting
Q: A 25-year-old female sustained an inversion ankle sprain 24 hours ago. The area is
severely edematous
and ecchymosis. Diagnostic tests reveal rupture of the lateral collateral ligaments. What
should the
treatment consist of at this time?
Answer:
Compression dressing 24 - 48 hours
Q: Which lateral ankle ligaments are intracapsular/extracapsular?
Answer:
ATFL - Intracapsular
CFL - Extracapsular
PTFL - Strongest, deepest, usually doesn't rupture
, Q: A 30-year-old male complains of a painful right ankle after sustaining a forced
plantarflexion injury.
Plantarflexion of the foot and dorsiflexion of the hallux greatly exacerbate the symptoms.
What is the
most probable diagnosis?
Answer:
Fracture of the posterior tubercle of the talus.
Q: Which procedure would be the most appropriate management strategy for treatment of a
rigid flatfoot
in an infant diagnosed with a pediatric congenital vertical talus deformity?
Answer:
1. Manipulation and
weekly serial casting for 5 weeks 2. Achilles tendon lengthening and TN joint pinning.
Q: Following a tendon reconstruction of the ankle for lateral ligamentous instability a
30-year-old female
developed a deformity of the big toe. On exam she has full range of motion of the MP joint
and good
ankle stability. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer:
Use of peroneus longus tendon for
reconstruction.
Q: What is the first step in the open reduction and internal fixation of an ankle pilon
fracture?
Answer:
Restoration of length and fixation of the fibular fracture.
