ATI PN COMPREHENSIVE EXAM 200 ACTUAL QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH RATIONALE LATEST 2026 -
2027 ALREADY GRADED A+
The ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor Exam is a standardized, proctored
assessment developed by ATI Testing to evaluate practical nursing students'
readiness for the NCLEX-PN licensure examination. The exam consists of 180
multiple-choice questions covering all major content areas, including
fundamentals of nursing, pharmacology, medical-surgical nursing, maternal-
newborn health, pediatrics, mental health nursing, and leadership and
management. The test employs the NCLEX-PN test plan framework,
emphasizing safe, effective care environments, health promotion, psychosocial
integrity, and physiological integrity. Performance on this exam is highly
predictive of NCLEX-PN success, and many nursing programs require a
specified benchmark score for progression or graduation.
1. An RN is making assignments for client care to an LPN at the beginning of the
shift. Which of the following assignments should the LPN question?
A) Assisting a client who is 24 hours postoperative to use an incentive spirometer
B) Collecting a clean-catch urine specimen from a client admitted on the previous
shift
C) Providing nasopharyngeal suctioning for a client who has pneumonia
D) Replacing the cartridge and tubing on a PCA pump
Answer: D
Rationale: The RN is responsible for the PCA pump. Tasks involving complex
medication administration and pump programming should not be delegated to
LPNs . Options A, B, and C are within LPN scope for stable clients.
2. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit has received change-of-shift report and will
care for four clients. Which client need should the nurse assign to an assistive
personnel (AP)?
A) Feeding a client admitted 24 hours ago with aspiration pneumonia
B) Reinforcing teaching with a client learning to walk with a quad cane
C) Reapplying a condom catheter for a client who has urinary incontinence
D) Applying a sterile dressing to a pressure ulcer
,Answer: C
Rationale: Reapplying a condom catheter is a non-invasive task within the AP's
scope . Options A, B, and D require nursing judgment or sterile technique.
3. A nurse is preparing an in-service program about delegation. Which elements
should be identified when presenting the five rights of delegation? (Select all that
apply)
A) Right task, right circumstance, right person, right direction, and right
supervision
B) Right task, right patient, right person, right time, and right supervision
C) Right task, right environment, right person, right communication, and right
evaluation
D) Right task, right situation, right person, right delegation, and right follow-up
Answer: A
Rationale: The five rights of delegation are right task, right circumstance, right
person, right direction/communication, and right supervision/evaluation .
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed phenytoin for a seizure disorder.
Which instructions should the nurse include? (Select all that apply)
A) "Brush and floss regularly to prevent gum overgrowth."
B) "Do not stop this medication suddenly."
C) "Report any rash to your provider immediately."
D) "This medication may decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives."
Answer: A, B, C, D
Rationale: Phenytoin carries risks including gingival hyperplasia (mitigated by
good oral hygiene), abrupt withdrawal seizures, Stevens-Johnson syndrome (rash is
a warning), and hepatic enzyme induction reducing oral contraceptive efficacy .
5. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder.
Which instructions should be reinforced? (Select all that apply)
A) "Maintain consistent fluid and sodium intake while taking this medication."
B) "Report signs of toxicity, such as tremors, confusion, or diarrhea."
C) "Do not take NSAIDs without consulting your provider."
D) "Blood levels will need to be checked regularly to ensure safety."
Answer: A, B, C, D
Rationale: Lithium has a narrow therapeutic index, requiring consistent hydration
and sodium intake. NSAIDs reduce renal clearance, increasing toxicity risk.
Regular monitoring ensures safe serum levels .
,6. A nurse is assessing a client who has a new prescription for warfarin following a
pulmonary embolism. Which laboratory value should be monitored most closely?
A) Platelet count
B) International Normalized Ratio (INR)
C) Hemoglobin level
D) White blood cell count
Answer: B
Rationale: INR (target 2–3 for PE) monitors warfarin's anticoagulant effect.
NCLEX-PN emphasizes therapeutic monitoring to balance efficacy and bleeding
risk .
7. A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a client who has heart failure.
Which finding indicates the medication should be withheld?
A) Heart rate 62/min
B) Potassium level 3.2 mEq/L
C) Blood pressure 130/80 mm Hg
D) Urine output 40 mL/hr
Answer: B
Rationale: Hypokalemia (K+ <3.5 mEq/L) increases digoxin toxicity risk.
NCLEX-PN stresses electrolyte monitoring as hypokalemia potentiates
arrhythmias .
8. A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client prescribed nitroglycerin sublingual
tablets for angina. Which instruction is appropriate?
A) Swallow the tablet with water
B) Take up to three doses, 5 minutes apart, if pain persists
C) Store in a weekly pill organizer
D) Expect headache to be a sign of toxicity
Answer: B
Rationale: Nitroglycerin may be repeated every 5 minutes for up to three doses. If
chest pain persists, emergency care is needed. Store in original dark glass container
for potency .
9. A client who is taking warfarin has an INR of 5.2. Which action should the
nurse take first?
A) Administer vitamin K as prescribed
B) Continue warfarin as ordered
C) Encourage intake of leafy greens
D) Assess for signs of bleeding
Answer: D
, Rationale: The priority is to assess for signs of bleeding (gums, bruising, blood in
urine/stool). After assessment, hold the next dose and notify the provider .
10. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is prescribed
spironolactone. Which adverse effects should be monitored? (Select all that apply)
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Gynecomastia in males
C) Irregular menstrual cycles in females
D) Drowsiness or lethargy
Answer: A, B, C, D
Rationale: Hyperkalemia is the most serious complication. Endocrine side effects
occur due to spironolactone's steroid-like structure. Drowsiness may develop from
electrolyte imbalances .
11. A nurse is reinforcing instructions to a client who has tuberculosis and a new
prescription for isoniazid. Which statements indicate understanding? (Select all
that apply)
A) "I will take this medication on an empty stomach."
B) "I should avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication."
C) "I will report numbness or tingling in my hands and feet."
D) "I should expect to take this medication for at least 6 months."
Answer: A, B, C, D
Rationale: Isoniazid should be taken on an empty stomach for absorption. Alcohol
increases hepatotoxicity risk. Peripheral neuropathy is a common adverse effect .
12. A nurse is providing teaching about gastrostomy tube feedings to the parents of
a school-age child. Which instruction should the nurse include?
A) Administer the feeding over 30 minutes
B) Place the child in a supine position after the feeding
C) Change the feeding bag and tubing every 3 days
D) Warm the formula in the microwave prior to administration
Answer: A
Rationale: Gastrostomy tube feedings should be administered over 30 minutes to
prevent dumping syndrome . The child should be positioned upright, bag and
tubing changed every 24 hours, and formula should not be microwaved.
13. A nurse is administering digoxin 0.125 mg PO to an adult client. Which finding
should be reported to the provider?
A) Potassium level 4.2 mEq/L
B) Apical pulse 58/min
AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH RATIONALE LATEST 2026 -
2027 ALREADY GRADED A+
The ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor Exam is a standardized, proctored
assessment developed by ATI Testing to evaluate practical nursing students'
readiness for the NCLEX-PN licensure examination. The exam consists of 180
multiple-choice questions covering all major content areas, including
fundamentals of nursing, pharmacology, medical-surgical nursing, maternal-
newborn health, pediatrics, mental health nursing, and leadership and
management. The test employs the NCLEX-PN test plan framework,
emphasizing safe, effective care environments, health promotion, psychosocial
integrity, and physiological integrity. Performance on this exam is highly
predictive of NCLEX-PN success, and many nursing programs require a
specified benchmark score for progression or graduation.
1. An RN is making assignments for client care to an LPN at the beginning of the
shift. Which of the following assignments should the LPN question?
A) Assisting a client who is 24 hours postoperative to use an incentive spirometer
B) Collecting a clean-catch urine specimen from a client admitted on the previous
shift
C) Providing nasopharyngeal suctioning for a client who has pneumonia
D) Replacing the cartridge and tubing on a PCA pump
Answer: D
Rationale: The RN is responsible for the PCA pump. Tasks involving complex
medication administration and pump programming should not be delegated to
LPNs . Options A, B, and C are within LPN scope for stable clients.
2. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit has received change-of-shift report and will
care for four clients. Which client need should the nurse assign to an assistive
personnel (AP)?
A) Feeding a client admitted 24 hours ago with aspiration pneumonia
B) Reinforcing teaching with a client learning to walk with a quad cane
C) Reapplying a condom catheter for a client who has urinary incontinence
D) Applying a sterile dressing to a pressure ulcer
,Answer: C
Rationale: Reapplying a condom catheter is a non-invasive task within the AP's
scope . Options A, B, and D require nursing judgment or sterile technique.
3. A nurse is preparing an in-service program about delegation. Which elements
should be identified when presenting the five rights of delegation? (Select all that
apply)
A) Right task, right circumstance, right person, right direction, and right
supervision
B) Right task, right patient, right person, right time, and right supervision
C) Right task, right environment, right person, right communication, and right
evaluation
D) Right task, right situation, right person, right delegation, and right follow-up
Answer: A
Rationale: The five rights of delegation are right task, right circumstance, right
person, right direction/communication, and right supervision/evaluation .
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed phenytoin for a seizure disorder.
Which instructions should the nurse include? (Select all that apply)
A) "Brush and floss regularly to prevent gum overgrowth."
B) "Do not stop this medication suddenly."
C) "Report any rash to your provider immediately."
D) "This medication may decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives."
Answer: A, B, C, D
Rationale: Phenytoin carries risks including gingival hyperplasia (mitigated by
good oral hygiene), abrupt withdrawal seizures, Stevens-Johnson syndrome (rash is
a warning), and hepatic enzyme induction reducing oral contraceptive efficacy .
5. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder.
Which instructions should be reinforced? (Select all that apply)
A) "Maintain consistent fluid and sodium intake while taking this medication."
B) "Report signs of toxicity, such as tremors, confusion, or diarrhea."
C) "Do not take NSAIDs without consulting your provider."
D) "Blood levels will need to be checked regularly to ensure safety."
Answer: A, B, C, D
Rationale: Lithium has a narrow therapeutic index, requiring consistent hydration
and sodium intake. NSAIDs reduce renal clearance, increasing toxicity risk.
Regular monitoring ensures safe serum levels .
,6. A nurse is assessing a client who has a new prescription for warfarin following a
pulmonary embolism. Which laboratory value should be monitored most closely?
A) Platelet count
B) International Normalized Ratio (INR)
C) Hemoglobin level
D) White blood cell count
Answer: B
Rationale: INR (target 2–3 for PE) monitors warfarin's anticoagulant effect.
NCLEX-PN emphasizes therapeutic monitoring to balance efficacy and bleeding
risk .
7. A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a client who has heart failure.
Which finding indicates the medication should be withheld?
A) Heart rate 62/min
B) Potassium level 3.2 mEq/L
C) Blood pressure 130/80 mm Hg
D) Urine output 40 mL/hr
Answer: B
Rationale: Hypokalemia (K+ <3.5 mEq/L) increases digoxin toxicity risk.
NCLEX-PN stresses electrolyte monitoring as hypokalemia potentiates
arrhythmias .
8. A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client prescribed nitroglycerin sublingual
tablets for angina. Which instruction is appropriate?
A) Swallow the tablet with water
B) Take up to three doses, 5 minutes apart, if pain persists
C) Store in a weekly pill organizer
D) Expect headache to be a sign of toxicity
Answer: B
Rationale: Nitroglycerin may be repeated every 5 minutes for up to three doses. If
chest pain persists, emergency care is needed. Store in original dark glass container
for potency .
9. A client who is taking warfarin has an INR of 5.2. Which action should the
nurse take first?
A) Administer vitamin K as prescribed
B) Continue warfarin as ordered
C) Encourage intake of leafy greens
D) Assess for signs of bleeding
Answer: D
, Rationale: The priority is to assess for signs of bleeding (gums, bruising, blood in
urine/stool). After assessment, hold the next dose and notify the provider .
10. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is prescribed
spironolactone. Which adverse effects should be monitored? (Select all that apply)
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Gynecomastia in males
C) Irregular menstrual cycles in females
D) Drowsiness or lethargy
Answer: A, B, C, D
Rationale: Hyperkalemia is the most serious complication. Endocrine side effects
occur due to spironolactone's steroid-like structure. Drowsiness may develop from
electrolyte imbalances .
11. A nurse is reinforcing instructions to a client who has tuberculosis and a new
prescription for isoniazid. Which statements indicate understanding? (Select all
that apply)
A) "I will take this medication on an empty stomach."
B) "I should avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication."
C) "I will report numbness or tingling in my hands and feet."
D) "I should expect to take this medication for at least 6 months."
Answer: A, B, C, D
Rationale: Isoniazid should be taken on an empty stomach for absorption. Alcohol
increases hepatotoxicity risk. Peripheral neuropathy is a common adverse effect .
12. A nurse is providing teaching about gastrostomy tube feedings to the parents of
a school-age child. Which instruction should the nurse include?
A) Administer the feeding over 30 minutes
B) Place the child in a supine position after the feeding
C) Change the feeding bag and tubing every 3 days
D) Warm the formula in the microwave prior to administration
Answer: A
Rationale: Gastrostomy tube feedings should be administered over 30 minutes to
prevent dumping syndrome . The child should be positioned upright, bag and
tubing changed every 24 hours, and formula should not be microwaved.
13. A nurse is administering digoxin 0.125 mg PO to an adult client. Which finding
should be reported to the provider?
A) Potassium level 4.2 mEq/L
B) Apical pulse 58/min
