University of Texas, Arlington NURS 5334/NURS5334:
Quiz 2 – 60 Practice Questions & Answers| Instant
Download Pdf
Exam Overview:
NURS 5334 Advanced Pharmacology Quiz 2 covers advanced pharmacokinetics,
pharmacodynamics, autonomic nervous system pharmacology, cardiovascular and renal
drugs, endocrine agents, and dermatologic pharmacology. The following questions are
drawn from actual exam banks and study resources for UTA's graduate nursing program,
updated for 2025–2026.
SECTION 1: PHARMACOKINETICS & PHARMACODYNAMICS (Questions 1-15)
Q1. A patient with chronic kidney disease (Stage 4) is prescribed a medication that is
primarily renally excreted. The nurse anticipates that the patient will require:
A) A higher dose to achieve a therapeutic effect
B) A lower dose or longer dosing interval to prevent toxicity
C) The same dose as a patient with normal renal function
D) An increased frequency of administration
Answer: B) A lower dose or longer dosing interval to prevent toxicity
Rationale: In renal impairment, drug clearance is reduced, leading to drug accumulation
and increased risk of toxicity. Dose reduction or extended dosing intervals are required.
Q2. A patient with heart failure is prescribed digoxin. Which physiological change
associated with aging would most likely increase the risk of digoxin toxicity?
A) Increased glomerular filtration rate
B) Decreased lean body mass
C) Increased hepatic blood flow
D) Decreased serum albumin
Answer: D) Decreased serum albumin
,Rationale: Aging is associated with decreased serum albumin. Digoxin is moderately
protein-bound. Lower albumin levels increase the free (active) fraction of the drug, leading
to a greater pharmacological effect and higher risk of toxicity.
Q3. A drug has a half-life of 24 hours. Approximately how many hours will it take for
the drug to reach steady state?
A) 24 hours
B) 48 hours
C) 120 hours
D) 240 hours
Answer: C) 120 hours
Rationale: Steady state is achieved after approximately 4-5 half-lives. With a half-life of 24
hours, 4-5 half-lives equal 96-120 hours.
Q4. A patient is prescribed a drug that is a weak acid (pKa 4.4). In which part of the
gastrointestinal tract will absorption be most rapid?
A) Mouth (pH 7.0)
B) Stomach (pH 1.5)
C) Duodenum (pH 6.0)
D) Colon (pH 7.5)
Answer: B) Stomach (pH 1.5)
Rationale: Weak acids are best absorbed in acidic environments where they remain non-
ionized (lipid-soluble). In the stomach's acidic pH, the drug is predominantly non-ionized,
allowing for passive diffusion across the gastric mucosa.
Q5. What are the four phases of pharmacokinetics?
Answer: Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, Excretion
Rationale: These four phases (ADME) describe how the body processes a drug from
administration to elimination.
, Q6. What is bioavailability?
Answer: The extent of drug that becomes available to the body after absorption
Rationale: Bioavailability refers to the fraction of an administered dose that reaches
systemic circulation in an unchanged form.
Q7. What is "free drug"?
Answer: The drug that is not bound to protein that is free to exert a therapeutic effect
Rationale: Only unbound (free) drug can cross membranes and interact with target
receptors to produce a pharmacological effect.
Q8. Nicotine is a CYP 450 inducer. What are its effects?
Answer: Increases metabolism of drugs metabolized by CYP450 enzymes
Rationale: Nicotine induces CYP450 enzymes, leading to increased drug metabolism and
potentially decreased efficacy of medications metabolized through these pathways.
Q9. Why are neonates at greater risk for toxicity with highly protein-bound drugs?
Answer: Protein binding is decreased in neonates, increasing the amount of free drug
available
Rationale: Neonates have lower serum albumin levels, resulting in a higher fraction of
unbound (free) drug and increased pharmacological effect.
Q10. At what age are adult levels of renal function achieved?
Answer: 12 months
Rationale: Renal function reaches adult levels by approximately 12 months of age,
affecting drug clearance in pediatric patients.
Q11. A patient is prescribed a drug that is a CYP3A4 inhibitor. Which effect should
the nurse anticipate?
Quiz 2 – 60 Practice Questions & Answers| Instant
Download Pdf
Exam Overview:
NURS 5334 Advanced Pharmacology Quiz 2 covers advanced pharmacokinetics,
pharmacodynamics, autonomic nervous system pharmacology, cardiovascular and renal
drugs, endocrine agents, and dermatologic pharmacology. The following questions are
drawn from actual exam banks and study resources for UTA's graduate nursing program,
updated for 2025–2026.
SECTION 1: PHARMACOKINETICS & PHARMACODYNAMICS (Questions 1-15)
Q1. A patient with chronic kidney disease (Stage 4) is prescribed a medication that is
primarily renally excreted. The nurse anticipates that the patient will require:
A) A higher dose to achieve a therapeutic effect
B) A lower dose or longer dosing interval to prevent toxicity
C) The same dose as a patient with normal renal function
D) An increased frequency of administration
Answer: B) A lower dose or longer dosing interval to prevent toxicity
Rationale: In renal impairment, drug clearance is reduced, leading to drug accumulation
and increased risk of toxicity. Dose reduction or extended dosing intervals are required.
Q2. A patient with heart failure is prescribed digoxin. Which physiological change
associated with aging would most likely increase the risk of digoxin toxicity?
A) Increased glomerular filtration rate
B) Decreased lean body mass
C) Increased hepatic blood flow
D) Decreased serum albumin
Answer: D) Decreased serum albumin
,Rationale: Aging is associated with decreased serum albumin. Digoxin is moderately
protein-bound. Lower albumin levels increase the free (active) fraction of the drug, leading
to a greater pharmacological effect and higher risk of toxicity.
Q3. A drug has a half-life of 24 hours. Approximately how many hours will it take for
the drug to reach steady state?
A) 24 hours
B) 48 hours
C) 120 hours
D) 240 hours
Answer: C) 120 hours
Rationale: Steady state is achieved after approximately 4-5 half-lives. With a half-life of 24
hours, 4-5 half-lives equal 96-120 hours.
Q4. A patient is prescribed a drug that is a weak acid (pKa 4.4). In which part of the
gastrointestinal tract will absorption be most rapid?
A) Mouth (pH 7.0)
B) Stomach (pH 1.5)
C) Duodenum (pH 6.0)
D) Colon (pH 7.5)
Answer: B) Stomach (pH 1.5)
Rationale: Weak acids are best absorbed in acidic environments where they remain non-
ionized (lipid-soluble). In the stomach's acidic pH, the drug is predominantly non-ionized,
allowing for passive diffusion across the gastric mucosa.
Q5. What are the four phases of pharmacokinetics?
Answer: Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, Excretion
Rationale: These four phases (ADME) describe how the body processes a drug from
administration to elimination.
, Q6. What is bioavailability?
Answer: The extent of drug that becomes available to the body after absorption
Rationale: Bioavailability refers to the fraction of an administered dose that reaches
systemic circulation in an unchanged form.
Q7. What is "free drug"?
Answer: The drug that is not bound to protein that is free to exert a therapeutic effect
Rationale: Only unbound (free) drug can cross membranes and interact with target
receptors to produce a pharmacological effect.
Q8. Nicotine is a CYP 450 inducer. What are its effects?
Answer: Increases metabolism of drugs metabolized by CYP450 enzymes
Rationale: Nicotine induces CYP450 enzymes, leading to increased drug metabolism and
potentially decreased efficacy of medications metabolized through these pathways.
Q9. Why are neonates at greater risk for toxicity with highly protein-bound drugs?
Answer: Protein binding is decreased in neonates, increasing the amount of free drug
available
Rationale: Neonates have lower serum albumin levels, resulting in a higher fraction of
unbound (free) drug and increased pharmacological effect.
Q10. At what age are adult levels of renal function achieved?
Answer: 12 months
Rationale: Renal function reaches adult levels by approximately 12 months of age,
affecting drug clearance in pediatric patients.
Q11. A patient is prescribed a drug that is a CYP3A4 inhibitor. Which effect should
the nurse anticipate?
