ATI Capstone Exam 2026 | Proctored Comprehensive
Assessment Form A & B – 200+ Practice Questions with
Verified Answers & NGN-Style Rationales| Instant
Download Pdf
Introduction
The ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment is a culminating exam
designed to evaluate nursing students' readiness for graduation and the NCLEX-
RN . This comprehensive guide covers both Form A and Form B assessments,
featuring practice questions with verified answers across all major content areas:
Pharmacology, Medical-Surgical, Maternal-Newborn, Pediatrics, Mental Health,
and Leadership .
Key Features of This Guide:
All answers in bold italics with detailed rationales
NGN-Style clinical judgment questions
200+ high-yield practice questions
Based on 2026/2027 ATI curriculum standards
Section 1: Fundamentals & Safety (Questions 1-20)
Q1. A nurse is planning to collect a stool specimen for ova and parasites from a
client who has diarrhea. Which action should the nurse take?
A) Collect the specimen from the toilet bowl
B) Refrigerate the specimen immediately after collection
C) Instruct the client to defecate into a clean, dry container
D) Collect three separate specimens over 5 days
Answer: C – Instruct the client to defecate into a clean, dry container
,Explanation: Specimens for ova and parasite testing should be collected in a
clean, dry container and delivered to the lab while still warm. Toilet water
contaminates the specimen, and refrigeration is not indicated .
Q2. A nurse is caring for a client who has dementia. Which action should the
nurse take to promote communication?
A) Speak in a loud voice
B) Face the client at eye level when communicating
C) Use complex sentences
D) Approach the client from behind
Answer: B – Face the client at eye level when communicating
Explanation: Facing the client at eye level reduces intimidation and helps the
client focus on nonverbal cues. Loud voices and complex sentences increase
confusion .
Q3. A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. Which action should
the nurse take FIRST?
A) Obtain the client's vital signs
B) Verify the client's identity using two identifiers
C) Prime the tubing with normal saline
D) Check the expiration date on the blood unit
Answer: B – Verify the client's identity using two identifiers
Explanation: Client identification is the first priority to prevent transfusion
errors. Two identifiers (e.g., name and medical record number) must be verified
against the blood product .
Q4. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving a blood transfusion. Which
finding indicates a hemolytic transfusion reaction?
A) Hypothermia
B) Hypertension
C) Low back pain
D) Bradycardia
,Answer: C – Low back pain
Explanation: Low back pain is a classic sign of a hemolytic transfusion reaction
caused by RBC destruction. Other signs include fever, chills, hypotension, and dark
urine .
Q5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a nasogastric tube connected to
continuous suction. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider?
A) Gastric output of 300 mL in 8 hours
B) Greenish-yellow drainage
C) pH of gastric aspirate of 3.0
D) Blood-tinged drainage
Answer: D – Blood-tinged drainage
Explanation: Blood-tinged drainage may indicate gastric mucosal injury and
should be reported. Normal gastric drainage is greenish-yellow with pH <4 .
Q6. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new
prescription for warfarin. Which statement by the client indicates
understanding?
A) "I will take ibuprofen for headaches."
B) "I will eat more leafy green vegetables."
C) "I will notify my dentist that I take this medication."
D) "I will stop taking this medication if I see bruising."
Answer: C – "I will notify my dentist that I take this medication."
Explanation: Clients on warfarin should inform all healthcare providers,
including dentists, to prevent excessive bleeding during procedures .
Q7. A nurse is assessing a client who has a chest tube following a thoracotomy.
Which finding requires IMMEDIATE intervention?
A) Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber
B) Tidaling in the water seal chamber
C) 100 mL of drainage in the first 8 hours
D) Pain at the insertion site
, Answer: A – Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber
Explanation: Continuous bubbling indicates an air leak, which requires
immediate intervention. Tidaling (fluctuations) is expected; 100 mL drainage in 8
hours and pain are expected .
Q8. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 days postop following abdominal
surgery. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider?
A) Temperature of 37.2°C (99°F)
B) Serosanguineous drainage on the dressing
C) Client reports pain 4/10
D) Wound edges that are separated
Answer: D – Wound edges that are separated
Explanation: Wound separation (dehiscence) requires immediate notification.
Low-grade fever, serosanguineous drainage, and mild pain are expected
postoperatively .
Q9. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new colostomy. Which finding should
the nurse report to the provider?
A) The stoma is dark purple
B) The stoma is slightly edematous
C) The stoma oozes bright red blood
D) The stoma is moist and pink
Answer: A – The stoma is dark purple
Explanation: A dark purple stoma indicates ischemia or necrosis and requires
immediate notification. A healthy stoma is moist, pink, and slightly swollen for 2-3
weeks .
Q10. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition
(TPN). Which finding indicates a complication?
A) Blood glucose of 110 mg/dL
B) Weight gain of 0.5 kg (1.1 lb) in 24 hours
Assessment Form A & B – 200+ Practice Questions with
Verified Answers & NGN-Style Rationales| Instant
Download Pdf
Introduction
The ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment is a culminating exam
designed to evaluate nursing students' readiness for graduation and the NCLEX-
RN . This comprehensive guide covers both Form A and Form B assessments,
featuring practice questions with verified answers across all major content areas:
Pharmacology, Medical-Surgical, Maternal-Newborn, Pediatrics, Mental Health,
and Leadership .
Key Features of This Guide:
All answers in bold italics with detailed rationales
NGN-Style clinical judgment questions
200+ high-yield practice questions
Based on 2026/2027 ATI curriculum standards
Section 1: Fundamentals & Safety (Questions 1-20)
Q1. A nurse is planning to collect a stool specimen for ova and parasites from a
client who has diarrhea. Which action should the nurse take?
A) Collect the specimen from the toilet bowl
B) Refrigerate the specimen immediately after collection
C) Instruct the client to defecate into a clean, dry container
D) Collect three separate specimens over 5 days
Answer: C – Instruct the client to defecate into a clean, dry container
,Explanation: Specimens for ova and parasite testing should be collected in a
clean, dry container and delivered to the lab while still warm. Toilet water
contaminates the specimen, and refrigeration is not indicated .
Q2. A nurse is caring for a client who has dementia. Which action should the
nurse take to promote communication?
A) Speak in a loud voice
B) Face the client at eye level when communicating
C) Use complex sentences
D) Approach the client from behind
Answer: B – Face the client at eye level when communicating
Explanation: Facing the client at eye level reduces intimidation and helps the
client focus on nonverbal cues. Loud voices and complex sentences increase
confusion .
Q3. A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. Which action should
the nurse take FIRST?
A) Obtain the client's vital signs
B) Verify the client's identity using two identifiers
C) Prime the tubing with normal saline
D) Check the expiration date on the blood unit
Answer: B – Verify the client's identity using two identifiers
Explanation: Client identification is the first priority to prevent transfusion
errors. Two identifiers (e.g., name and medical record number) must be verified
against the blood product .
Q4. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving a blood transfusion. Which
finding indicates a hemolytic transfusion reaction?
A) Hypothermia
B) Hypertension
C) Low back pain
D) Bradycardia
,Answer: C – Low back pain
Explanation: Low back pain is a classic sign of a hemolytic transfusion reaction
caused by RBC destruction. Other signs include fever, chills, hypotension, and dark
urine .
Q5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a nasogastric tube connected to
continuous suction. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider?
A) Gastric output of 300 mL in 8 hours
B) Greenish-yellow drainage
C) pH of gastric aspirate of 3.0
D) Blood-tinged drainage
Answer: D – Blood-tinged drainage
Explanation: Blood-tinged drainage may indicate gastric mucosal injury and
should be reported. Normal gastric drainage is greenish-yellow with pH <4 .
Q6. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new
prescription for warfarin. Which statement by the client indicates
understanding?
A) "I will take ibuprofen for headaches."
B) "I will eat more leafy green vegetables."
C) "I will notify my dentist that I take this medication."
D) "I will stop taking this medication if I see bruising."
Answer: C – "I will notify my dentist that I take this medication."
Explanation: Clients on warfarin should inform all healthcare providers,
including dentists, to prevent excessive bleeding during procedures .
Q7. A nurse is assessing a client who has a chest tube following a thoracotomy.
Which finding requires IMMEDIATE intervention?
A) Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber
B) Tidaling in the water seal chamber
C) 100 mL of drainage in the first 8 hours
D) Pain at the insertion site
, Answer: A – Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber
Explanation: Continuous bubbling indicates an air leak, which requires
immediate intervention. Tidaling (fluctuations) is expected; 100 mL drainage in 8
hours and pain are expected .
Q8. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 days postop following abdominal
surgery. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider?
A) Temperature of 37.2°C (99°F)
B) Serosanguineous drainage on the dressing
C) Client reports pain 4/10
D) Wound edges that are separated
Answer: D – Wound edges that are separated
Explanation: Wound separation (dehiscence) requires immediate notification.
Low-grade fever, serosanguineous drainage, and mild pain are expected
postoperatively .
Q9. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new colostomy. Which finding should
the nurse report to the provider?
A) The stoma is dark purple
B) The stoma is slightly edematous
C) The stoma oozes bright red blood
D) The stoma is moist and pink
Answer: A – The stoma is dark purple
Explanation: A dark purple stoma indicates ischemia or necrosis and requires
immediate notification. A healthy stoma is moist, pink, and slightly swollen for 2-3
weeks .
Q10. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition
(TPN). Which finding indicates a complication?
A) Blood glucose of 110 mg/dL
B) Weight gain of 0.5 kg (1.1 lb) in 24 hours
