Actual Exam Test Bank| Advanced Health Assessment
Exam 3 Review With Complete Real Exam Questions
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1. A 58-year-old patient presents with a complaint of
"dizziness." The nurse performs a carotid auscultation. Which
finding would be most concerning?
A. A continuous bruit
B. A systolic bruit in the mid-cervical region
C. A high-pitched, localized bruit radiating to the temporal area
D. Transmitted heart sound
Answer: C
Rationale: A high-pitched, localized carotid bruit that radiates to
the temporal area suggests significant carotid artery stenosis.
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,Continuous bruits may be venous hums. Systolic bruits in the mid-
cervical region can be transmitted from the heart.
2. A 72-year-old patient reports difficulty hearing high-pitched
sounds and difficulty understanding speech in noisy
environments. Weber testing lateralizes to the right ear, and
Rinne testing shows bone conduction greater than air
conduction on the right. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Right sensorineural hearing loss
B. Right conductive hearing loss
C. Left sensorineural hearing loss
D. Normal hearing
Answer: B
Rationale: In conductive hearing loss, Weber lateralizes to the
affected ear (right), and Rinne shows bone conduction greater
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,than air conduction (abnormal Rinne). Sensorineural loss causes
Weber to lateralize to the unaffected ear.
3. A 45-year-old patient presents with a complaint of "double
vision" that resolves when either eye is covered. This finding
is most consistent with:
A. Extraocular muscle dysfunction
B. Corneal abnormality
C. Cataract
D. Retinal detachment
Answer: A
Rationale: Diplopia that resolves when either eye is covered is
binocular diplopia, indicating misalignment of the eyes
(extraocular muscle dysfunction, cranial nerve palsy). Monocular
diplopia (present with one eye covered) suggests corneal or lens
abnormality.
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, 4. During a cardiac examination, the nurse palpates a thrill at
the left sternal border. This finding is most consistent with:
A. Atrial septal defect
B. Mitral stenosis
C. Ventricular septal defect or aortic stenosis
D. Pericardial friction rub
Answer: C
Rationale: A thrill (palpable vibration) indicates a grade IV or
higher murmur. A thrill at the left sternal border suggests a
ventricular septal defect (VSD) or aortic stenosis. Mitral stenosis
causes a thrill at the apex.
5. A patient reports a severe headache that reached maximal
intensity within seconds. The patient describes it as a
"thunderclap" headache. What is the priority action?
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