ANCC AGACNP – FRANCES REVIEW NEWEST 2026
TEST BANK| COMPLETE 530 REAL EXAM QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) ALREADY GRADED A+ (BRAND NEW!!)
1. A 78-year-old male patient with heart failure develops a
bacterial urinary tract infection secondary to an indwelling
Foley catheter. The patient has a known history of allergy to
penicillin and sulfonamides. The appropriate choice for
antimicrobial therapy is:
A) Cephalexin (Keflex)
B) Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
C) Doxycycline (Vibramycin)
D) Tetracycline (Sumycin)
Correct Answer: B
1
,*Rationale: Ciprofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone appropriate for
complicated urinary tract infections in patients with penicillin and
sulfa allergies. Cephalosporins have cross-reactivity with
penicillins (approximately 1-10% risk), making them potentially
unsafe. Tetracyclines are not first-line for UTIs in elderly patients
due to side effect profiles and resistance patterns.
Fluoroquinolones provide good urinary penetration and efficacy
against Gram-negative organisms common in catheter-associated
UTIs .*
2. A female patient is receiving adjuvant chemotherapy for
breast cancer and has been given information about her
treatment regimen, expected side effects, and symptom
management. Which symptom, if occurring two weeks after
treatment, warrants a prompt call to the acute care nurse
practitioner?
2
,A) Alopecia
B) Fatigue
C) Fever
D) Nausea
Correct Answer: C
*Rationale: Fever in a chemotherapy patient two weeks after
treatment is concerning for febrile neutropenia, a medical
emergency requiring immediate evaluation. The nadir period for
white blood cell count typically occurs 7-14 days after
chemotherapy administration. Alopecia, fatigue, and nausea are
expected side effects but do not represent an emergent
condition requiring immediate intervention .*
3. A patient with hydrocephalus secondary to a subarachnoid
hemorrhage has developed an intracranial pressure of 25 mm
Hg. The acute care nurse practitioner's priority intervention is
to:
3
, A) Hyperventilate to reach a PCO2 of 30 mm Hg
B) Order dexamethasone (Decadron) 4 mg IV
C) Perform a ventriculostomy and drainage of cerebrospinal
fluid
D) Prescribe mannitol (Osmitrol) 100 g IV
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: An ICP of 25 mm Hg is elevated (normal <15 mm Hg)
and requires immediate intervention. While mannitol and
hyperventilation are temporizing measures, the definitive
intervention for hydrocephalus is CSF drainage via ventriculostomy.
This provides both accurate ICP monitoring and therapeutic
drainage. Dexamethasone is not indicated for hydrocephalus from
SAH. Hyperventilation is used cautiously due to risk of cerebral
ischemia .
4. Which medication is used with caution in older adults due
to the potential for confusion and delirium?
4
TEST BANK| COMPLETE 530 REAL EXAM QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) ALREADY GRADED A+ (BRAND NEW!!)
1. A 78-year-old male patient with heart failure develops a
bacterial urinary tract infection secondary to an indwelling
Foley catheter. The patient has a known history of allergy to
penicillin and sulfonamides. The appropriate choice for
antimicrobial therapy is:
A) Cephalexin (Keflex)
B) Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
C) Doxycycline (Vibramycin)
D) Tetracycline (Sumycin)
Correct Answer: B
1
,*Rationale: Ciprofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone appropriate for
complicated urinary tract infections in patients with penicillin and
sulfa allergies. Cephalosporins have cross-reactivity with
penicillins (approximately 1-10% risk), making them potentially
unsafe. Tetracyclines are not first-line for UTIs in elderly patients
due to side effect profiles and resistance patterns.
Fluoroquinolones provide good urinary penetration and efficacy
against Gram-negative organisms common in catheter-associated
UTIs .*
2. A female patient is receiving adjuvant chemotherapy for
breast cancer and has been given information about her
treatment regimen, expected side effects, and symptom
management. Which symptom, if occurring two weeks after
treatment, warrants a prompt call to the acute care nurse
practitioner?
2
,A) Alopecia
B) Fatigue
C) Fever
D) Nausea
Correct Answer: C
*Rationale: Fever in a chemotherapy patient two weeks after
treatment is concerning for febrile neutropenia, a medical
emergency requiring immediate evaluation. The nadir period for
white blood cell count typically occurs 7-14 days after
chemotherapy administration. Alopecia, fatigue, and nausea are
expected side effects but do not represent an emergent
condition requiring immediate intervention .*
3. A patient with hydrocephalus secondary to a subarachnoid
hemorrhage has developed an intracranial pressure of 25 mm
Hg. The acute care nurse practitioner's priority intervention is
to:
3
, A) Hyperventilate to reach a PCO2 of 30 mm Hg
B) Order dexamethasone (Decadron) 4 mg IV
C) Perform a ventriculostomy and drainage of cerebrospinal
fluid
D) Prescribe mannitol (Osmitrol) 100 g IV
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: An ICP of 25 mm Hg is elevated (normal <15 mm Hg)
and requires immediate intervention. While mannitol and
hyperventilation are temporizing measures, the definitive
intervention for hydrocephalus is CSF drainage via ventriculostomy.
This provides both accurate ICP monitoring and therapeutic
drainage. Dexamethasone is not indicated for hydrocephalus from
SAH. Hyperventilation is used cautiously due to risk of cerebral
ischemia .
4. Which medication is used with caution in older adults due
to the potential for confusion and delirium?
4
