West Coast University NURS 201 ATI Exam (pdf) | 2026/2027 | ATI
Proctored | Med-Surg
1. Which of the following information should a nurse identify as a component
of a health record?
A) Immunization data
B) Record of client health care payments
C) Complete medical information for household members
D) Facility policies
Correct Answer: Immunization data
Rationale: A health record contains any information that could influence a
client's health, such as immunization status, medications, allergies, and
demographic data. Payment records, household information, and facility
policies are not part of the client's health record.
2. A charge nurse is reviewing characteristics of electronic documentation
with staff. Which characteristics should the nurse plan to include? (Select all
that apply)
A) Reduces medical errors
B) Improves listening skills among interdisciplinary team members
C) Less convenient than paper-based charting
D) Makes client medical history more easily available
E) Increases accuracy of coding procedures
Correct Answer: Reduces medical errors; Makes client medical history more
easily available; Increases accuracy of coding procedures
Rationale: Electronic documentation systems help reduce medical errors,
make client information readily available to health care professionals, and
,lead to more reliable coding and billing. They do not inherently improve
listening skills and are generally more convenient, not less, than paper
charting.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving intravenous therapy. Which
of the following findings should the nurse identify as a manifestation of fluid
volume excess?
A) Decreased bowel sounds
B) Distended neck veins
C) Bilateral muscle weakness
D) Thread pulse
Correct Answer: Distended neck veins
Rationale: Fluid volume excess (hypervolemia) manifests with distended
neck veins (jugular venous distention), crackles in the lungs, peripheral
edema, and hypertension. Decreased bowel sounds, bilateral muscle
weakness, and a thread pulse are not characteristic of fluid volume excess.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has hyponatremia and is receiving an
infusion of a prescribed hypertonic solution. Which of the following findings
should indicate to the nurse that the treatment is effective?
A) Absent Chvostek's sign
B) Improved cognition
C) Decreased vomiting
D) Cardiac arrhythmias absent
Correct Answer: Improved cognition
,Rationale: Hyponatremia causes cerebral edema leading to neurological
symptoms such as confusion, headache, and nausea. Improvement in
cognition indicates that the hypertonic solution is effectively raising the
serum sodium level and reducing cerebral edema.
5. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for a nitroglycerin
transdermal patch. Which of the following instructions should the nurse
include?
A) "Discontinue the patch if you experience a headache."
B) "Apply a new patch if you have chest pain."
C) "Cover the patch with dry gauze when taking a shower."
D) "Remove the patch prior to going to bed."
Correct Answer: "Remove the patch prior to going to bed."
Rationale: Nitroglycerin patches should be removed at bedtime to provide a
nitrate-free interval, which helps prevent the development of tolerance.
Headache is a common side effect and does not warrant discontinuation. The
patch should not be covered, and a new patch is not applied for acute chest
pain.
6. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has a
prescription for sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) every 6 hr. Which
of the following results should the nurse report to the provider?
A) Creatinine 0.72 mg/dL
B) Sodium 138 mEq/L
C) Magnesium 2 mEq/L
D) Potassium 5.2 mEq/L
Correct Answer: Potassium 5.2 mEq/L
, Rationale: Kayexalate is administered to treat hyperkalemia. A potassium
level of 5.2 mEq/L is above the normal range (3.5-5.0 mEq/L) and should be
reported to the provider. The other values are within normal limits.
7. A nurse is caring for a client who has tuberculosis and is taking isoniazid
and rifampin. Which of the following outcomes indicates that the client is
adhering to the medication regimen?
A) The client has a negative sputum culture
B) The client tests negative for HIV
C) The client has a positive purified protein derivative test
D) The client's liver function test results are within the expected reference
range
Correct Answer: The client has a negative sputum culture
Rationale: A negative sputum culture indicates that the tuberculosis infection
is responding to treatment and that the client is adhering to the medication
regimen. A positive PPD test indicates exposure, not adherence, and normal
liver function tests do not confirm adherence.
8. A client develops an anaphylactic reaction to IV medication administration.
After assessing the client's respiratory status and stopping the medication
infusion, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?
A) Replace the infusion with 0.9% sodium chloride
B) Give diphenhydramine IM
C) Elevate the client's legs and feet
D) Administer epinephrine IM
Correct Answer: Administer epinephrine IM
Proctored | Med-Surg
1. Which of the following information should a nurse identify as a component
of a health record?
A) Immunization data
B) Record of client health care payments
C) Complete medical information for household members
D) Facility policies
Correct Answer: Immunization data
Rationale: A health record contains any information that could influence a
client's health, such as immunization status, medications, allergies, and
demographic data. Payment records, household information, and facility
policies are not part of the client's health record.
2. A charge nurse is reviewing characteristics of electronic documentation
with staff. Which characteristics should the nurse plan to include? (Select all
that apply)
A) Reduces medical errors
B) Improves listening skills among interdisciplinary team members
C) Less convenient than paper-based charting
D) Makes client medical history more easily available
E) Increases accuracy of coding procedures
Correct Answer: Reduces medical errors; Makes client medical history more
easily available; Increases accuracy of coding procedures
Rationale: Electronic documentation systems help reduce medical errors,
make client information readily available to health care professionals, and
,lead to more reliable coding and billing. They do not inherently improve
listening skills and are generally more convenient, not less, than paper
charting.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving intravenous therapy. Which
of the following findings should the nurse identify as a manifestation of fluid
volume excess?
A) Decreased bowel sounds
B) Distended neck veins
C) Bilateral muscle weakness
D) Thread pulse
Correct Answer: Distended neck veins
Rationale: Fluid volume excess (hypervolemia) manifests with distended
neck veins (jugular venous distention), crackles in the lungs, peripheral
edema, and hypertension. Decreased bowel sounds, bilateral muscle
weakness, and a thread pulse are not characteristic of fluid volume excess.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has hyponatremia and is receiving an
infusion of a prescribed hypertonic solution. Which of the following findings
should indicate to the nurse that the treatment is effective?
A) Absent Chvostek's sign
B) Improved cognition
C) Decreased vomiting
D) Cardiac arrhythmias absent
Correct Answer: Improved cognition
,Rationale: Hyponatremia causes cerebral edema leading to neurological
symptoms such as confusion, headache, and nausea. Improvement in
cognition indicates that the hypertonic solution is effectively raising the
serum sodium level and reducing cerebral edema.
5. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for a nitroglycerin
transdermal patch. Which of the following instructions should the nurse
include?
A) "Discontinue the patch if you experience a headache."
B) "Apply a new patch if you have chest pain."
C) "Cover the patch with dry gauze when taking a shower."
D) "Remove the patch prior to going to bed."
Correct Answer: "Remove the patch prior to going to bed."
Rationale: Nitroglycerin patches should be removed at bedtime to provide a
nitrate-free interval, which helps prevent the development of tolerance.
Headache is a common side effect and does not warrant discontinuation. The
patch should not be covered, and a new patch is not applied for acute chest
pain.
6. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has a
prescription for sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) every 6 hr. Which
of the following results should the nurse report to the provider?
A) Creatinine 0.72 mg/dL
B) Sodium 138 mEq/L
C) Magnesium 2 mEq/L
D) Potassium 5.2 mEq/L
Correct Answer: Potassium 5.2 mEq/L
, Rationale: Kayexalate is administered to treat hyperkalemia. A potassium
level of 5.2 mEq/L is above the normal range (3.5-5.0 mEq/L) and should be
reported to the provider. The other values are within normal limits.
7. A nurse is caring for a client who has tuberculosis and is taking isoniazid
and rifampin. Which of the following outcomes indicates that the client is
adhering to the medication regimen?
A) The client has a negative sputum culture
B) The client tests negative for HIV
C) The client has a positive purified protein derivative test
D) The client's liver function test results are within the expected reference
range
Correct Answer: The client has a negative sputum culture
Rationale: A negative sputum culture indicates that the tuberculosis infection
is responding to treatment and that the client is adhering to the medication
regimen. A positive PPD test indicates exposure, not adherence, and normal
liver function tests do not confirm adherence.
8. A client develops an anaphylactic reaction to IV medication administration.
After assessing the client's respiratory status and stopping the medication
infusion, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?
A) Replace the infusion with 0.9% sodium chloride
B) Give diphenhydramine IM
C) Elevate the client's legs and feet
D) Administer epinephrine IM
Correct Answer: Administer epinephrine IM
