West Coast University NURS 180 Final Exam (pdf) | 2026/2027 |
Pharmacology Q&A | Pharmacology
1. Which of the following best describes the difference between a drug's
generic name and its trade (brand) name?
A) The generic name is assigned by the pharmaceutical company, and the
trade name is the chemical formula
B) The generic name is the official name assigned by the US Adopted Name
Council, and the trade name is given by the manufacturer
C) The generic name is the chemical formula, and the trade name is
assigned by the FDA
D) The generic name and trade name are the same for all medications
Correct Answer: The generic name is the official name assigned by the US
Adopted Name Council, and the trade name is given by the manufacturer
Rationale: The generic name is the official, nonproprietary name assigned to
a drug by the US Adopted Name Council and the FDA. There is only one
generic name per medication, whereas there can be multiple trade (brand)
names given by different manufacturers. The chemical name describes the
drug's chemical formula.
2. A nurse is reviewing a medication order for a client. The order states:
"Morphine sulfate 4 mg IV push q4h PRN for severe pain." The nurse notes
that morphine sulfate is a Schedule II controlled substance. Which
characteristic is most associated with Schedule II drugs?
A) High potential for abuse with no accepted medical use
B) High potential for abuse with accepted medical use
C) Moderate potential for abuse with accepted medical use
D) Low potential for abuse with accepted medical use
Correct Answer: High potential for abuse with accepted medical use
,Rationale: Schedule II drugs have a high potential for abuse but have
accepted medical uses (e.g., morphine, oxycodone, fentanyl). Schedule I
drugs have high abuse potential and no accepted medical use. Schedule III
has moderate potential, Schedule IV has low potential, and Schedule V has
the lowest potential for abuse.
3. A client is prescribed a medication that undergoes extensive first-pass
metabolism in the liver. The nurse understands that this means:
A) The drug is rapidly absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract
B) A significant portion of the drug is metabolized by the liver before
reaching systemic circulation
C) The drug is primarily excreted unchanged by the kidneys
D) The drug has a high bioavailability
Correct Answer: A significant portion of the drug is metabolized by the liver
before reaching systemic circulation
Rationale: First-pass metabolism refers to the extensive metabolism of a
drug by the liver before it reaches systemic circulation. This reduces the
bioavailability of the drug. Drugs with high first-pass metabolism often
require higher oral doses or alternative routes of administration (e.g.,
sublingual, IV) to achieve therapeutic effects.
4. A client asks the nurse about the difference between a side effect and an
adverse effect of a medication. Which response by the nurse is most
accurate?
A) "Side effects are always harmful, while adverse effects are mild."
B) "Side effects are expected and often predictable, while adverse effects are
severe and life-threatening."
C) "Side effects and adverse effects are the same thing."
,D) "Side effects are intended effects, while adverse effects are unintended
effects."
Correct Answer: "Side effects are expected and often predictable, while
adverse effects are severe and life-threatening."
Rationale: Side effects are unintended but predictable effects that occur at
therapeutic doses. Adverse effects are severe, unintended, and potentially
life-threatening reactions. Therapeutic effects are the intended effects of the
drug.
5. The nurse is caring for a client who is 2 days post-operative. The client
rates pain as 8/10. The nurse administers morphine sulfate as ordered. After
30 minutes, the nurse reassesses the pain level at 3/10. The reassessment
step occurs during which phase of the nursing process?
A) Assessment
B) Diagnosis
C) Planning
D) Evaluation
Correct Answer: Evaluation
Rationale: The nursing process includes Assessment (data collection),
Diagnosis (identifying problems), Planning (setting goals), Implementation
(performing interventions), and Evaluation (determining if goals were met).
Reassessing pain after an intervention is an evaluation of the effectiveness of
the intervention.
6. A client is prescribed a medication that is known to cause photosensitivity.
Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan?
A) "Avoid exposure to sunlight and use sunscreen."
, B) "Take the medication with food to prevent stomach upset."
C) "Increase your fluid intake to prevent dehydration."
D) "Monitor your blood pressure regularly."
Correct Answer: "Avoid exposure to sunlight and use sunscreen."
Rationale: Photosensitivity is an adverse effect of some medications that
makes the skin more sensitive to sunlight. Clients should be taught to avoid
sun exposure and use sunscreen to prevent sunburn and skin damage.
Common medications that cause photosensitivity include tetracyclines,
sulfonamides, and NSAIDs.
7. A client is prescribed digoxin for heart failure. The nurse should monitor
for which early sign of digoxin toxicity?
A) Tachycardia
B) Anorexia, nausea, and vomiting
C) Hypertension
D) Hyperkalemia
Correct Answer: Anorexia, nausea, and vomiting
Rationale: Early signs of digoxin toxicity include anorexia, nausea, vomiting,
and visual disturbances (yellow-green halos). Bradycardia, not tachycardia,
occurs. Hypotension and hypokalemia are also associated with digoxin
toxicity. Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity.
8. A client on digoxin has a potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L. The nurse should
recognize that this places the client at risk for:
A) Digoxin toxicity
B) Decreased digoxin effect
Pharmacology Q&A | Pharmacology
1. Which of the following best describes the difference between a drug's
generic name and its trade (brand) name?
A) The generic name is assigned by the pharmaceutical company, and the
trade name is the chemical formula
B) The generic name is the official name assigned by the US Adopted Name
Council, and the trade name is given by the manufacturer
C) The generic name is the chemical formula, and the trade name is
assigned by the FDA
D) The generic name and trade name are the same for all medications
Correct Answer: The generic name is the official name assigned by the US
Adopted Name Council, and the trade name is given by the manufacturer
Rationale: The generic name is the official, nonproprietary name assigned to
a drug by the US Adopted Name Council and the FDA. There is only one
generic name per medication, whereas there can be multiple trade (brand)
names given by different manufacturers. The chemical name describes the
drug's chemical formula.
2. A nurse is reviewing a medication order for a client. The order states:
"Morphine sulfate 4 mg IV push q4h PRN for severe pain." The nurse notes
that morphine sulfate is a Schedule II controlled substance. Which
characteristic is most associated with Schedule II drugs?
A) High potential for abuse with no accepted medical use
B) High potential for abuse with accepted medical use
C) Moderate potential for abuse with accepted medical use
D) Low potential for abuse with accepted medical use
Correct Answer: High potential for abuse with accepted medical use
,Rationale: Schedule II drugs have a high potential for abuse but have
accepted medical uses (e.g., morphine, oxycodone, fentanyl). Schedule I
drugs have high abuse potential and no accepted medical use. Schedule III
has moderate potential, Schedule IV has low potential, and Schedule V has
the lowest potential for abuse.
3. A client is prescribed a medication that undergoes extensive first-pass
metabolism in the liver. The nurse understands that this means:
A) The drug is rapidly absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract
B) A significant portion of the drug is metabolized by the liver before
reaching systemic circulation
C) The drug is primarily excreted unchanged by the kidneys
D) The drug has a high bioavailability
Correct Answer: A significant portion of the drug is metabolized by the liver
before reaching systemic circulation
Rationale: First-pass metabolism refers to the extensive metabolism of a
drug by the liver before it reaches systemic circulation. This reduces the
bioavailability of the drug. Drugs with high first-pass metabolism often
require higher oral doses or alternative routes of administration (e.g.,
sublingual, IV) to achieve therapeutic effects.
4. A client asks the nurse about the difference between a side effect and an
adverse effect of a medication. Which response by the nurse is most
accurate?
A) "Side effects are always harmful, while adverse effects are mild."
B) "Side effects are expected and often predictable, while adverse effects are
severe and life-threatening."
C) "Side effects and adverse effects are the same thing."
,D) "Side effects are intended effects, while adverse effects are unintended
effects."
Correct Answer: "Side effects are expected and often predictable, while
adverse effects are severe and life-threatening."
Rationale: Side effects are unintended but predictable effects that occur at
therapeutic doses. Adverse effects are severe, unintended, and potentially
life-threatening reactions. Therapeutic effects are the intended effects of the
drug.
5. The nurse is caring for a client who is 2 days post-operative. The client
rates pain as 8/10. The nurse administers morphine sulfate as ordered. After
30 minutes, the nurse reassesses the pain level at 3/10. The reassessment
step occurs during which phase of the nursing process?
A) Assessment
B) Diagnosis
C) Planning
D) Evaluation
Correct Answer: Evaluation
Rationale: The nursing process includes Assessment (data collection),
Diagnosis (identifying problems), Planning (setting goals), Implementation
(performing interventions), and Evaluation (determining if goals were met).
Reassessing pain after an intervention is an evaluation of the effectiveness of
the intervention.
6. A client is prescribed a medication that is known to cause photosensitivity.
Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan?
A) "Avoid exposure to sunlight and use sunscreen."
, B) "Take the medication with food to prevent stomach upset."
C) "Increase your fluid intake to prevent dehydration."
D) "Monitor your blood pressure regularly."
Correct Answer: "Avoid exposure to sunlight and use sunscreen."
Rationale: Photosensitivity is an adverse effect of some medications that
makes the skin more sensitive to sunlight. Clients should be taught to avoid
sun exposure and use sunscreen to prevent sunburn and skin damage.
Common medications that cause photosensitivity include tetracyclines,
sulfonamides, and NSAIDs.
7. A client is prescribed digoxin for heart failure. The nurse should monitor
for which early sign of digoxin toxicity?
A) Tachycardia
B) Anorexia, nausea, and vomiting
C) Hypertension
D) Hyperkalemia
Correct Answer: Anorexia, nausea, and vomiting
Rationale: Early signs of digoxin toxicity include anorexia, nausea, vomiting,
and visual disturbances (yellow-green halos). Bradycardia, not tachycardia,
occurs. Hypotension and hypokalemia are also associated with digoxin
toxicity. Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity.
8. A client on digoxin has a potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L. The nurse should
recognize that this places the client at risk for:
A) Digoxin toxicity
B) Decreased digoxin effect
