Rasmussen University NUR 2755 Module 6 (pdf) | 2026/2027 | MDC 4
Q&A | Nursing
1. Which of the following best describes the difference between a superficial
partial-thickness burn and a deep partial-thickness burn?
A) A superficial partial-thickness burn affects only the epidermis, while a
deep partial-thickness burn affects the dermis and epidermis
B) A superficial partial-thickness burn typically heals without scarring in 10-
21 days, while a deep partial-thickness burn may take 3-6 weeks and often
scars
C) A superficial partial-thickness burn is painless, while a deep partial-
thickness burn is intensely painful
D) A superficial partial-thickness burn always requires skin grafting, while a
deep partial-thickness burn does not
Correct Answer: A superficial partial-thickness burn typically heals without
scarring in 10-21 days, while a deep partial-thickness burn may take 3-6
weeks and often scars
Rationale: Superficial partial-thickness burns damage the epidermis and
upper dermis, heal in 10-21 days, and typically do not scar. Deep partial-
thickness burns extend deeper into the dermis, heal in 3-6 weeks, and often
result in scarring. The epidermis-only injury describes a superficial burn, not
a partial-thickness one.
2. A client is brought to the emergency department with a burn injury. The
nurse notes the wound is dry, leathery, and hard with eschar. Which type of
burn does this describe?
A) Superficial burn
B) Superficial partial-thickness burn
C) Deep partial-thickness burn
D) Full-thickness burn
,Correct Answer: Full-thickness burn
Rationale: A full-thickness burn destroys the epidermis and dermis and
appears leathery, dry, and hard with eschar. Superficial burns are red and
painful, superficial partial-thickness burns have blisters, and deep partial-
thickness burns are red and dry.
3. A client with a full-thickness burn injury has a lack of sensation in the
burned area. The nurse understands this is due to:
A) The body's natural analgesic response to severe pain
B) Destruction of nerve endings in the dermis and deeper tissues
C) The presence of eschar blocking pain signals
D) Administration of opioid analgesics
Correct Answer: Destruction of nerve endings in the dermis and deeper
tissues
Rationale: In full-thickness burns, nerve endings are destroyed, resulting in a
lack of sensation in the burned area. This is a key distinguishing feature from
partial-thickness burns, which are painful.
4. A client sustains a burn injury from a hot stove. The nurse correctly
identifies this etiology as which type of burn?
A) Dry heat burn
B) Moist heat burn
C) Contact burn
D) Thermal burn
Correct Answer: Contact burn
,Rationale: A burn from a hot stove is a contact burn, which occurs when the
skin comes into direct contact with a hot surface. Dry heat burns include
sunburns, moist heat burns are from hot water or steam, and thermal burns
are from fire.
5. During the resuscitation phase of a burn injury, what is the primary focus
of nursing care?
A) Wound debridement and skin grafting
B) Airway, breathing, circulation, and fluid replacement
C) Nutritional support and high-calorie diet
D) Physical therapy and rehabilitation
Correct Answer: Airway, breathing, circulation, and fluid replacement
Rationale: The resuscitation phase (first 24-48 hours) focuses on airway,
breathing, circulation (ABCs), preventing infection, maintaining body
temperature, and replacing fluid. Wound care and grafting occur later,
nutritional support is critical but secondary in the acute phase, and
rehabilitation is a long-term goal.
6. A client with a burn injury involving 30% of total body surface area
requires an NG tube. The nurse understands the primary reason for this
intervention is to:
A) Provide enteral nutrition
B) Prevent aspiration and manage gastric ileus
C) Administer medications
D) Decompress the stomach
Correct Answer: Prevent aspiration and manage gastric ileus
, Rationale: The GI tract is often disrupted in burn patients, which can result in
stomach ulcers and ileus. An NG tube is inserted if the burn area is 25% or
more to prevent aspiration and manage gastric distention.
7. A client with a severe burn injury has a high risk of developing Curling's
ulcer. Which medication would the nurse anticipate administering to prevent
this complication?
A) Omeprazole
B) Famotidine (Pepcid)
C) Cimetidine (Tagamet)
D) Sucralfate
Correct Answer: Cimetidine (Tagamet)
Rationale: Burn patients are at risk for developing stress ulcers (Curling's
ulcers) due to GI tract disruption. Cimetidine (Tagamet) is given to prevent
ulcers. While other medications may also be used, Tagamet is specifically
mentioned in the context of burn care.
8. A client with burn injuries requires an additional 5000 calories per day.
Which dietary intervention is most appropriate?
A) A diet high in protein with small, frequent snacks
B) A low-protein, high-carbohydrate diet
C) A clear liquid diet until motility returns
D) Total parenteral nutrition only
Correct Answer: A diet high in protein with small, frequent snacks
Q&A | Nursing
1. Which of the following best describes the difference between a superficial
partial-thickness burn and a deep partial-thickness burn?
A) A superficial partial-thickness burn affects only the epidermis, while a
deep partial-thickness burn affects the dermis and epidermis
B) A superficial partial-thickness burn typically heals without scarring in 10-
21 days, while a deep partial-thickness burn may take 3-6 weeks and often
scars
C) A superficial partial-thickness burn is painless, while a deep partial-
thickness burn is intensely painful
D) A superficial partial-thickness burn always requires skin grafting, while a
deep partial-thickness burn does not
Correct Answer: A superficial partial-thickness burn typically heals without
scarring in 10-21 days, while a deep partial-thickness burn may take 3-6
weeks and often scars
Rationale: Superficial partial-thickness burns damage the epidermis and
upper dermis, heal in 10-21 days, and typically do not scar. Deep partial-
thickness burns extend deeper into the dermis, heal in 3-6 weeks, and often
result in scarring. The epidermis-only injury describes a superficial burn, not
a partial-thickness one.
2. A client is brought to the emergency department with a burn injury. The
nurse notes the wound is dry, leathery, and hard with eschar. Which type of
burn does this describe?
A) Superficial burn
B) Superficial partial-thickness burn
C) Deep partial-thickness burn
D) Full-thickness burn
,Correct Answer: Full-thickness burn
Rationale: A full-thickness burn destroys the epidermis and dermis and
appears leathery, dry, and hard with eschar. Superficial burns are red and
painful, superficial partial-thickness burns have blisters, and deep partial-
thickness burns are red and dry.
3. A client with a full-thickness burn injury has a lack of sensation in the
burned area. The nurse understands this is due to:
A) The body's natural analgesic response to severe pain
B) Destruction of nerve endings in the dermis and deeper tissues
C) The presence of eschar blocking pain signals
D) Administration of opioid analgesics
Correct Answer: Destruction of nerve endings in the dermis and deeper
tissues
Rationale: In full-thickness burns, nerve endings are destroyed, resulting in a
lack of sensation in the burned area. This is a key distinguishing feature from
partial-thickness burns, which are painful.
4. A client sustains a burn injury from a hot stove. The nurse correctly
identifies this etiology as which type of burn?
A) Dry heat burn
B) Moist heat burn
C) Contact burn
D) Thermal burn
Correct Answer: Contact burn
,Rationale: A burn from a hot stove is a contact burn, which occurs when the
skin comes into direct contact with a hot surface. Dry heat burns include
sunburns, moist heat burns are from hot water or steam, and thermal burns
are from fire.
5. During the resuscitation phase of a burn injury, what is the primary focus
of nursing care?
A) Wound debridement and skin grafting
B) Airway, breathing, circulation, and fluid replacement
C) Nutritional support and high-calorie diet
D) Physical therapy and rehabilitation
Correct Answer: Airway, breathing, circulation, and fluid replacement
Rationale: The resuscitation phase (first 24-48 hours) focuses on airway,
breathing, circulation (ABCs), preventing infection, maintaining body
temperature, and replacing fluid. Wound care and grafting occur later,
nutritional support is critical but secondary in the acute phase, and
rehabilitation is a long-term goal.
6. A client with a burn injury involving 30% of total body surface area
requires an NG tube. The nurse understands the primary reason for this
intervention is to:
A) Provide enteral nutrition
B) Prevent aspiration and manage gastric ileus
C) Administer medications
D) Decompress the stomach
Correct Answer: Prevent aspiration and manage gastric ileus
, Rationale: The GI tract is often disrupted in burn patients, which can result in
stomach ulcers and ileus. An NG tube is inserted if the burn area is 25% or
more to prevent aspiration and manage gastric distention.
7. A client with a severe burn injury has a high risk of developing Curling's
ulcer. Which medication would the nurse anticipate administering to prevent
this complication?
A) Omeprazole
B) Famotidine (Pepcid)
C) Cimetidine (Tagamet)
D) Sucralfate
Correct Answer: Cimetidine (Tagamet)
Rationale: Burn patients are at risk for developing stress ulcers (Curling's
ulcers) due to GI tract disruption. Cimetidine (Tagamet) is given to prevent
ulcers. While other medications may also be used, Tagamet is specifically
mentioned in the context of burn care.
8. A client with burn injuries requires an additional 5000 calories per day.
Which dietary intervention is most appropriate?
A) A diet high in protein with small, frequent snacks
B) A low-protein, high-carbohydrate diet
C) A clear liquid diet until motility returns
D) Total parenteral nutrition only
Correct Answer: A diet high in protein with small, frequent snacks
