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Rasmussen University NUR 2755 Module 7 (pdf) | 2026/2027 | MDC 4 Q&A | Nursing

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This document helps you master Module 7 of NUR2755 Multidimensional Care IV (MDC 4) via targeted Q&A with detailed rationales. It covers the continuum of shock (compensatory, progressive, and refractory stages), including hypovolemic, cardiogenic, distributive (septic, neurogenic, anaphylactic), and obstructive shock. You will master vasoactive medications, hemodynamic monitoring, fluid resuscitation, and ABG interpretation. Engineered to maximize retention and sharpen clinical decision-making under pressure, this test pack simplifies complex exam content, saving you valuable preparation time and ensuring you secure an A on your Module 7 assessment.

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NUR 2755
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NUR 2755

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Rasmussen University NUR 2755 Module 7 (pdf) | 2026/2027 | MDC 4
Q&A | Nursing

1. A nurse is caring for a client in the progressive stage of shock with lung
decompensation. Which intervention should the nurse anticipate?

A) Administration of oxygen via Venturi mask

B) Pericardiocentesis

C) Intubation and mechanical ventilation

D) Thoracotomy with chest tube insertion



Correct Answer: Intubation and mechanical ventilation



Rationale: In the progressive stage of shock, lung decompensation may
require intubation and mechanical ventilation to maintain oxygenation and
ventilation. Oxygen via mask may not be sufficient. Pericardiocentesis is for
cardiac tamponade, and thoracotomy is not the primary intervention for lung
decompensation in shock.



2. In the treatment of shock, which vasoactive drug results in reduced
preload and afterload, reducing oxygen demand of the heart?

A) Nitroprusside

B) Dopamine

C) Methoxamine

D) Epinephrine



Correct Answer: Nitroprusside



Rationale: Nitroprusside is a vasodilator that reduces both preload and
afterload, decreasing the oxygen demand of the heart. Dopamine and
epinephrine are vasopressors that increase afterload, and methoxamine is a
pure alpha-agonist vasoconstrictor.

,3. The nurse is caring for a client with shock. The nurse is concerned about
hypoxemia and metabolic acidosis. Which finding should the nurse analyze
for evidence of these conditions?

A) Red blood cells (RBCs) and hemoglobin count findings

B) White blood cell count findings

C) Arterial blood gas (ABG) findings

D) Serum thyroid level findings



Correct Answer: Arterial blood gas (ABG) findings



Rationale: ABG findings provide evidence of hypoxemia (low PaO2) and
metabolic acidosis (low pH, low HCO3) in a client with shock.
RBC/hemoglobin counts assess anemia, WBC counts assess infection, and
thyroid levels are not directly related to shock.



4. A client is brought to the emergency department unresponsive, with an
elevated temperature and flushed skin. Physical assessment reveals a rapid,
bounding pulse. The client's workplace has had a significant increase in
staphylococcal and streptococcal infections. Labs show an elevated white
blood cell count. The nurse should suspect which type of shock?

A) Cardiogenic shock

B) Septic shock

C) Anaphylactic shock

D) Neurogenic shock



Correct Answer: Septic shock



Rationale: Septic shock is caused by infection and is characterized by fever,
elevated WBC, flushed skin, and a rapid, bounding pulse. Cardiogenic shock

,is due to pump failure, anaphylactic shock is due to allergic reaction, and
neurogenic shock is due to spinal cord injury.



5. A confused client has a blood pressure of 112/84 mm Hg, pulse of 116
beats per minute, and respirations of 30 breaths per minute. The client's skin
is cold and clammy. Which action should the nurse take next?

A) Contact the admitting physician

B) Call the Rapid Response Team

C) Re-assess the vital signs

D) Administer oxygen by nasal cannula at 2 L/min



Correct Answer: Call the Rapid Response Team



Rationale: The client is showing signs of shock (tachycardia, tachypnea,
cold/clammy skin, confusion). The Rapid Response Team should be activated
early to intervene before the client's status evolves into a medical
emergency. The criteria for activation include heart rate >140 or <40,
respiratory rate >28 or <8, systolic BP >180 or <90, oxygen saturation
<90%, acute change in mental status, and staff concern.



6. The nurse is caring for a client in the compensation stage of shock. One of
the body's mechanisms of compensation is the action of the renin-
angiotensin-aldosterone system. What does this system do?

A) Restores blood pressure

B) Decreases peripheral blood flow

C) Increases catecholamine secretion

D) Increases the production of antidiuretic hormone



Correct Answer: Restores blood pressure

, Rationale: In the compensation stage of shock, the renin-angiotensin-
aldosterone system is activated to restore blood pressure and maintain
perfusion. This system causes vasoconstriction and sodium/water retention.
Catecholamine secretion and ADH production are other compensatory
mechanisms.



7. The nurse is monitoring a client with a pulmonary artery catheter (PAC).
Which hemodynamic parameter reflects left ventricular preload?

A) Cardiac output

B) Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP)

C) Central venous pressure (CVP)

D) Systemic vascular resistance (SVR)



Correct Answer: Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP)



Rationale: Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) reflects left ventricular
preload. CVP reflects right ventricular preload. Cardiac output measures the
amount of blood pumped by the heart, and SVR measures afterload.



8. A client is in the progressive stage of shock. Which assessment finding
would the nurse expect?

A) Increased urine output

B) Warm, flushed skin

C) Metabolic acidosis

D) Hypertension



Correct Answer: Metabolic acidosis

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Institución
NUR 2755
Grado
NUR 2755

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Subido en
1 de julio de 2026
Número de páginas
48
Escrito en
2025/2026
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