West Coast EMT Block 3 Exam – Entry Level
Emergency Medical Technician (NREMT Aligned)
– 2026/2027 Edition – 50 Questions with Verified
Answers.
Question 1
A 30-year-old male experienced a generalized (tonic-clonic) seizure, which stopped
before you arrived. The patient is conscious, answering questions appropriately, and
refuses EMS transport. Which of the following would be the MOST compelling reason to
disagree with his refusal?
A. His Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is 15
B. His wife states this was his "usual" seizure
C. He has experienced seizures since he was 20
D. He is currently not prescribed any medications
Answer: D. He is currently not prescribed any medications
Rationale: Patients with a history of seizures who are not currently on prescribed
medication are at higher risk for recurrent seizures. This makes transport for further
evaluation crucial. A GCS of 15 indicates normal neurological function, and a history of
seizures since age 20 without medication suggests poor compliance or an uncontrolled
condition .
,Question 2
A patient who is possibly experiencing a stroke is NOT eligible for thrombolytic
(fibrinolytic) therapy if he or she:
A. Has had a prior heart attack
B. Has bleeding within the brain
C. Has a GCS score less than 8
D. Is older than 60 years of age
Answer: B. Has bleeding within the brain
Rationale: Thrombolytic therapy is contraindicated in hemorrhagic stroke because it
would worsen bleeding. These medications dissolve clots and are only appropriate for
ischemic strokes. Prior heart attack, age over 60, and GCS less than 8 are not absolute
contraindications .
Question 3
A patient whose speech is slurred and difficult to understand is experiencing:
A. Paraplegia
B. Dysphagia
C. Dysarthria
D. Aphasia
Answer: C. Dysarthria
Rationale: Dysarthria is slurred or difficult speech due to motor dysfunction of the
muscles used for speaking. Aphasia is the inability to produce or understand speech.
Dysphagia is difficulty swallowing, and paraplegia is paralysis of the lower extremities .
,Question 4
A patient with an altered mental status is:
A. Typically alert but confused as to preceding events
B. Not thinking clearly or is incapable of being aroused
C. Usually able to be aroused with painful stimulus
D. Completely unresponsive to all forms of stimuli
Answer: B. Not thinking clearly or is incapable of being aroused
Rationale: Altered mental status refers to a condition where the patient is disoriented,
confused, or unable to be fully aroused, indicating underlying neurological or metabolic
issues .
Question 5
During the primary assessment of a semiconscious 70-year-old female, you should:
A. Insert a nasopharyngeal airway and assist ventilations
B. Ask family members if the patient has a history of stroke
C. Immediately determine the patient's blood glucose level
D. Ensure a patent airway and support ventilation as needed
Answer: D. Ensure a patent airway and support ventilation as needed
Rationale: During primary assessment, airway and breathing are the highest priorities.
Ensuring a patent airway and supporting ventilation as needed must be addressed
before obtaining history or performing other assessments .
, Question 6
Interruption of cerebral blood flow may result from all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. An embolism
B. Cerebral vasodilation
C. A thrombus
D. An acute arterial rupture
Answer: B. Cerebral vasodilation
Rationale: Cerebral vasodilation increases blood flow rather than interrupting it.
Embolism, thrombus, and arterial rupture all cause interruption of cerebral blood flow .
Question 7
The left cerebral hemisphere controls:
A. Heart rate and pupil reaction
B. The right side of the face
C. Breathing and blood pressure
D. The right side of the body
Answer: D. The right side of the body
Rationale: The left hemisphere controls motor and sensory function for the right side of
the body due to decussation (crossing) of nerve fibers in the medulla oblongata .
Question 8
The MOST significant risk factor for a hemorrhagic stroke is:
Emergency Medical Technician (NREMT Aligned)
– 2026/2027 Edition – 50 Questions with Verified
Answers.
Question 1
A 30-year-old male experienced a generalized (tonic-clonic) seizure, which stopped
before you arrived. The patient is conscious, answering questions appropriately, and
refuses EMS transport. Which of the following would be the MOST compelling reason to
disagree with his refusal?
A. His Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is 15
B. His wife states this was his "usual" seizure
C. He has experienced seizures since he was 20
D. He is currently not prescribed any medications
Answer: D. He is currently not prescribed any medications
Rationale: Patients with a history of seizures who are not currently on prescribed
medication are at higher risk for recurrent seizures. This makes transport for further
evaluation crucial. A GCS of 15 indicates normal neurological function, and a history of
seizures since age 20 without medication suggests poor compliance or an uncontrolled
condition .
,Question 2
A patient who is possibly experiencing a stroke is NOT eligible for thrombolytic
(fibrinolytic) therapy if he or she:
A. Has had a prior heart attack
B. Has bleeding within the brain
C. Has a GCS score less than 8
D. Is older than 60 years of age
Answer: B. Has bleeding within the brain
Rationale: Thrombolytic therapy is contraindicated in hemorrhagic stroke because it
would worsen bleeding. These medications dissolve clots and are only appropriate for
ischemic strokes. Prior heart attack, age over 60, and GCS less than 8 are not absolute
contraindications .
Question 3
A patient whose speech is slurred and difficult to understand is experiencing:
A. Paraplegia
B. Dysphagia
C. Dysarthria
D. Aphasia
Answer: C. Dysarthria
Rationale: Dysarthria is slurred or difficult speech due to motor dysfunction of the
muscles used for speaking. Aphasia is the inability to produce or understand speech.
Dysphagia is difficulty swallowing, and paraplegia is paralysis of the lower extremities .
,Question 4
A patient with an altered mental status is:
A. Typically alert but confused as to preceding events
B. Not thinking clearly or is incapable of being aroused
C. Usually able to be aroused with painful stimulus
D. Completely unresponsive to all forms of stimuli
Answer: B. Not thinking clearly or is incapable of being aroused
Rationale: Altered mental status refers to a condition where the patient is disoriented,
confused, or unable to be fully aroused, indicating underlying neurological or metabolic
issues .
Question 5
During the primary assessment of a semiconscious 70-year-old female, you should:
A. Insert a nasopharyngeal airway and assist ventilations
B. Ask family members if the patient has a history of stroke
C. Immediately determine the patient's blood glucose level
D. Ensure a patent airway and support ventilation as needed
Answer: D. Ensure a patent airway and support ventilation as needed
Rationale: During primary assessment, airway and breathing are the highest priorities.
Ensuring a patent airway and supporting ventilation as needed must be addressed
before obtaining history or performing other assessments .
, Question 6
Interruption of cerebral blood flow may result from all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. An embolism
B. Cerebral vasodilation
C. A thrombus
D. An acute arterial rupture
Answer: B. Cerebral vasodilation
Rationale: Cerebral vasodilation increases blood flow rather than interrupting it.
Embolism, thrombus, and arterial rupture all cause interruption of cerebral blood flow .
Question 7
The left cerebral hemisphere controls:
A. Heart rate and pupil reaction
B. The right side of the face
C. Breathing and blood pressure
D. The right side of the body
Answer: D. The right side of the body
Rationale: The left hemisphere controls motor and sensory function for the right side of
the body due to decussation (crossing) of nerve fibers in the medulla oblongata .
Question 8
The MOST significant risk factor for a hemorrhagic stroke is:
