ATI PN COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR EXIT EXAM
2026 WITH NGN 200 QuESTIONS WITH ANSWERS
AND DETAIlED RATIONAlES AlREADY GRADED
A+
ABOUT THIS EXAM
The ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor Exit Exam is a standardized assessment designed to evaluate practical nursing
students' readiness for the NCLEX-PN. The 2026 version incorporates Next Generation NCLEX (NGN) item types
including case studies, matrix questions, and drag-and-drop formats. Research confirms strong alignment between
the PN Comprehensive Predictor and the NCLEX-PN test plan across all domains including clinical judgment .
SECTION 1: MANAGEMENT OF CARE AND PRIORITIZATION (Questions 1-30)
Q1. A PN is caring for four clients at the start of the shift. Which client should be assessed
FIRST?
A) Client with diabetes requesting pain medication for neuropathy
B) Client with COPD who has a new cough producing green sputum
C) Client post-op day 1 with new-onset confusion and BP 88/50
D) Client with a fractured tibia requesting help to the bathroom
Answer: C
Rationale: New confusion plus hypotension suggests possible sepsis, hemorrhage, or shock —
unstable priority. Airway and circulation precede stable complaints. The ABC framework guides
prioritization .
Q2. Which client can be assigned to a PN (LPN/LVN) under RN supervision?
A) Client newly diagnosed with unstable angina on a titratable heparin drip
B) Client with stable congestive heart failure receiving daily furosemide
,C) Client requiring blood transfusion for symptomatic anemia
D) Client with chest tube and continuous bubbling in water seal chamber
Answer: B
Rationale: Stable CHF on routine diuretic is within PN scope. Titratable drips, blood
transfusions, and chest tube troubleshooting are typically RN scope .
Q3. A charge nurse is assigning staff for the shift. Which client should be assigned to an RN
rather than a PN?
A) A client with stable CHF receiving daily Lasix
B) A client requiring a blood transfusion for symptomatic anemia
C) A client with a new diagnosis of diabetes needing insulin instruction
D) A client with a PEG tube requiring intermittent feedings
Answer: C
Rationale: Client education (specifically initial instruction) falls under the scope of the RN, as it
requires complex assessment and evaluation of learning. PNs can reinforce teaching but cannot
perform initial patient teaching .
Q4. A nurse is delegating tasks to an assistive personnel (AP). Which task is appropriate to
delegate?
A) Administering an enema
B) Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter
C) Measuring a client's vital signs
D) Teaching a client how to use an incentive spirometer
Answer: C
Rationale: Measuring vital signs is within the AP's scope of practice. The nurse cannot delegate
tasks requiring nursing judgment, sterile technique (catheter insertion), or client education .
Q5. A nurse is preparing a client for transfer to a long-term care facility. Which information
should the nurse include in the transfer report? (Select all that apply)
A) The client's advance directive status
B) The client's recent laboratory values
,C) The client's current medications
D) The client's preferred activities
E) The client's code status
Answer: A, B, C, D, E
Rationale: All of these are essential for continuity of care. Transfer reports must include
advance directives, recent labs, current medications, activity preferences, and code status to
ensure safe handoff .
Q6. A nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for a surgical procedure. Which action is the
priority?
A) Ensure the client has signed the informed consent form
B) Review the client's laboratory results
C) Verify the client's allergies
D) Administer preoperative medication as prescribed
Answer: A
Rationale: Informed consent is a legal requirement before any invasive procedure. The nurse's
priority is to ensure consent is signed and witnessed, as failure to do so could result in legal
liability and cancellation of the procedure .
Q7. A nurse notes that a colleague administered the wrong medication to a client. Which
action should the nurse take FIRST?
A) Report the colleague to the nursing supervisor
B) Assess the client for adverse effects
C) Complete an incident report
D) Discuss the error with the colleague privately
Answer: B
Rationale: Client safety is the priority. The nurse should first assess the client for any adverse
effects from the wrong medication. After ensuring client safety, the nurse should report the
error through appropriate channels .
, Q8. A nurse is caring for a client who has a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order. The client's
daughter demands that the nurse start CPR. Which action should the nurse take?
A) Start CPR because the daughter is the legal surrogate
B) Respect the DNR order and not initiate CPR
C) Call the provider for clarification
D) Start CPR until the provider arrives
Answer: B
Rationale: A DNR order is legally binding. A family member cannot override it without a court
order .
Q9. A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. Which finding indicates a
hemolytic reaction?
A) Flushing and itching
B) Low back pain and hypotension
C) Wheezing and stridor
D) Fever and chills
Answer: B
Rationale: Low back pain and hypotension are hallmark signs of a hemolytic transfusion
reaction. This is a medical emergency requiring immediate cessation of the transfusion .
Q10. A nurse is teaching a client about using a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump.
Which statement indicates understanding?
A) "I will ask my family member to press the button while I sleep"
B) "I can press the button whenever I have pain"
C) "The pump will deliver a continuous dose without me pressing anything"
D) "I should wait 30 minutes between doses"
Answer: B
Rationale: PCA allows the client to self-administer pain medication as needed. Only the client
should press the button to prevent overdose. A family member pressing the button could lead
to respiratory depression .
2026 WITH NGN 200 QuESTIONS WITH ANSWERS
AND DETAIlED RATIONAlES AlREADY GRADED
A+
ABOUT THIS EXAM
The ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor Exit Exam is a standardized assessment designed to evaluate practical nursing
students' readiness for the NCLEX-PN. The 2026 version incorporates Next Generation NCLEX (NGN) item types
including case studies, matrix questions, and drag-and-drop formats. Research confirms strong alignment between
the PN Comprehensive Predictor and the NCLEX-PN test plan across all domains including clinical judgment .
SECTION 1: MANAGEMENT OF CARE AND PRIORITIZATION (Questions 1-30)
Q1. A PN is caring for four clients at the start of the shift. Which client should be assessed
FIRST?
A) Client with diabetes requesting pain medication for neuropathy
B) Client with COPD who has a new cough producing green sputum
C) Client post-op day 1 with new-onset confusion and BP 88/50
D) Client with a fractured tibia requesting help to the bathroom
Answer: C
Rationale: New confusion plus hypotension suggests possible sepsis, hemorrhage, or shock —
unstable priority. Airway and circulation precede stable complaints. The ABC framework guides
prioritization .
Q2. Which client can be assigned to a PN (LPN/LVN) under RN supervision?
A) Client newly diagnosed with unstable angina on a titratable heparin drip
B) Client with stable congestive heart failure receiving daily furosemide
,C) Client requiring blood transfusion for symptomatic anemia
D) Client with chest tube and continuous bubbling in water seal chamber
Answer: B
Rationale: Stable CHF on routine diuretic is within PN scope. Titratable drips, blood
transfusions, and chest tube troubleshooting are typically RN scope .
Q3. A charge nurse is assigning staff for the shift. Which client should be assigned to an RN
rather than a PN?
A) A client with stable CHF receiving daily Lasix
B) A client requiring a blood transfusion for symptomatic anemia
C) A client with a new diagnosis of diabetes needing insulin instruction
D) A client with a PEG tube requiring intermittent feedings
Answer: C
Rationale: Client education (specifically initial instruction) falls under the scope of the RN, as it
requires complex assessment and evaluation of learning. PNs can reinforce teaching but cannot
perform initial patient teaching .
Q4. A nurse is delegating tasks to an assistive personnel (AP). Which task is appropriate to
delegate?
A) Administering an enema
B) Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter
C) Measuring a client's vital signs
D) Teaching a client how to use an incentive spirometer
Answer: C
Rationale: Measuring vital signs is within the AP's scope of practice. The nurse cannot delegate
tasks requiring nursing judgment, sterile technique (catheter insertion), or client education .
Q5. A nurse is preparing a client for transfer to a long-term care facility. Which information
should the nurse include in the transfer report? (Select all that apply)
A) The client's advance directive status
B) The client's recent laboratory values
,C) The client's current medications
D) The client's preferred activities
E) The client's code status
Answer: A, B, C, D, E
Rationale: All of these are essential for continuity of care. Transfer reports must include
advance directives, recent labs, current medications, activity preferences, and code status to
ensure safe handoff .
Q6. A nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for a surgical procedure. Which action is the
priority?
A) Ensure the client has signed the informed consent form
B) Review the client's laboratory results
C) Verify the client's allergies
D) Administer preoperative medication as prescribed
Answer: A
Rationale: Informed consent is a legal requirement before any invasive procedure. The nurse's
priority is to ensure consent is signed and witnessed, as failure to do so could result in legal
liability and cancellation of the procedure .
Q7. A nurse notes that a colleague administered the wrong medication to a client. Which
action should the nurse take FIRST?
A) Report the colleague to the nursing supervisor
B) Assess the client for adverse effects
C) Complete an incident report
D) Discuss the error with the colleague privately
Answer: B
Rationale: Client safety is the priority. The nurse should first assess the client for any adverse
effects from the wrong medication. After ensuring client safety, the nurse should report the
error through appropriate channels .
, Q8. A nurse is caring for a client who has a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order. The client's
daughter demands that the nurse start CPR. Which action should the nurse take?
A) Start CPR because the daughter is the legal surrogate
B) Respect the DNR order and not initiate CPR
C) Call the provider for clarification
D) Start CPR until the provider arrives
Answer: B
Rationale: A DNR order is legally binding. A family member cannot override it without a court
order .
Q9. A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. Which finding indicates a
hemolytic reaction?
A) Flushing and itching
B) Low back pain and hypotension
C) Wheezing and stridor
D) Fever and chills
Answer: B
Rationale: Low back pain and hypotension are hallmark signs of a hemolytic transfusion
reaction. This is a medical emergency requiring immediate cessation of the transfusion .
Q10. A nurse is teaching a client about using a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump.
Which statement indicates understanding?
A) "I will ask my family member to press the button while I sleep"
B) "I can press the button whenever I have pain"
C) "The pump will deliver a continuous dose without me pressing anything"
D) "I should wait 30 minutes between doses"
Answer: B
Rationale: PCA allows the client to self-administer pain medication as needed. Only the client
should press the button to prevent overdose. A family member pressing the button could lead
to respiratory depression .
