PRN 1381/PRN1381 Exam 1 V3 | Principles
of Pharmacology Q&A with Rationale |
Rasmussen University
1. Which pharmacokinetic process is most likely affected in a patient with chronic liver
failure?
A. Excretion
B. Distribution
C. Metabolism
D. Absorption
Answer: C
Rationale: Metabolism occurs primarily in the liver through the action of enzymes. When
liver function is impaired, the body cannot effectively break down drugs into their
metabolites. This can lead to drug toxicity because the active medication remains in the
system longer than intended.
2. The nurse is administering a drug that is known to have a ‘narrow therapeutic index.’ What
does this term indicate?
A. The drug is very safe and rarely causes toxicity.
B. The drug has a long half-life and stays in the body for days.
C. The drug must be taken with food to be effective.
,D. The difference between a therapeutic dose and a toxic dose is small.
Answer: D
Rationale: A narrow therapeutic index means that there is little margin for error between
a dose that helps and a dose that harms. Patients taking these drugs require frequent blood
monitoring to ensure levels remain within a safe range. Toxicity can occur very easily if the
dosage is slightly too high.
3. Which route of administration is subject to the ‘first-pass effect’?
A. Intravenous (IV)
B. Oral (PO)
C. Sublingual (SL)
D. Transdermal
Answer: B
Rationale: Oral medications are absorbed from the GI tract and pass through the portal
vein into the liver before reaching systemic circulation. During this first pass, the liver may
metabolize a significant portion of the drug, reducing its bioavailability. Routes like IV or
sublingual bypass this process, allowing more of the drug to reach the target site directly.
4. A patient is prescribed a Schedule II medication. What does the nurse understand about
this classification?
A. The drug has a very low potential for abuse or dependency.
, B. The drug is available over-the-counter without a prescription.
C. The drug has no accepted medical use and a high abuse potential.
D. The drug has a high potential for abuse but has accepted medical uses.
Answer: D
Rationale: Schedule II drugs are heavily regulated because they have a high potential for
severe physical or psychological dependence. While they are used medically, they require
strict documentation and security measures in the healthcare setting. Examples include
morphine, oxycodone, and certain stimulants.
5. What is the primary organ responsible for the excretion of most drugs?
A. Lungs
B. Kidneys
C. Liver
D. Skin
Answer: B
Rationale: The kidneys are the main site for drug excretion through urine. If a patient has
renal impairment, drugs may accumulate in the body and cause adverse effects. Nurses
should monitor BUN and creatinine levels to assess renal function before administering
medications.
of Pharmacology Q&A with Rationale |
Rasmussen University
1. Which pharmacokinetic process is most likely affected in a patient with chronic liver
failure?
A. Excretion
B. Distribution
C. Metabolism
D. Absorption
Answer: C
Rationale: Metabolism occurs primarily in the liver through the action of enzymes. When
liver function is impaired, the body cannot effectively break down drugs into their
metabolites. This can lead to drug toxicity because the active medication remains in the
system longer than intended.
2. The nurse is administering a drug that is known to have a ‘narrow therapeutic index.’ What
does this term indicate?
A. The drug is very safe and rarely causes toxicity.
B. The drug has a long half-life and stays in the body for days.
C. The drug must be taken with food to be effective.
,D. The difference between a therapeutic dose and a toxic dose is small.
Answer: D
Rationale: A narrow therapeutic index means that there is little margin for error between
a dose that helps and a dose that harms. Patients taking these drugs require frequent blood
monitoring to ensure levels remain within a safe range. Toxicity can occur very easily if the
dosage is slightly too high.
3. Which route of administration is subject to the ‘first-pass effect’?
A. Intravenous (IV)
B. Oral (PO)
C. Sublingual (SL)
D. Transdermal
Answer: B
Rationale: Oral medications are absorbed from the GI tract and pass through the portal
vein into the liver before reaching systemic circulation. During this first pass, the liver may
metabolize a significant portion of the drug, reducing its bioavailability. Routes like IV or
sublingual bypass this process, allowing more of the drug to reach the target site directly.
4. A patient is prescribed a Schedule II medication. What does the nurse understand about
this classification?
A. The drug has a very low potential for abuse or dependency.
, B. The drug is available over-the-counter without a prescription.
C. The drug has no accepted medical use and a high abuse potential.
D. The drug has a high potential for abuse but has accepted medical uses.
Answer: D
Rationale: Schedule II drugs are heavily regulated because they have a high potential for
severe physical or psychological dependence. While they are used medically, they require
strict documentation and security measures in the healthcare setting. Examples include
morphine, oxycodone, and certain stimulants.
5. What is the primary organ responsible for the excretion of most drugs?
A. Lungs
B. Kidneys
C. Liver
D. Skin
Answer: B
Rationale: The kidneys are the main site for drug excretion through urine. If a patient has
renal impairment, drugs may accumulate in the body and cause adverse effects. Nurses
should monitor BUN and creatinine levels to assess renal function before administering
medications.
