NUR2755 Final Exam Actual Exam Style
V2 | NUR 2755 Multidimensional Care IV /
MDC 4 | Rasmussen
1. A patient weighing 80 kg has sustained partial-thickness burns to 40% of their body. Using
the Parkland Formula (4 mL/kg/%TBSA), how much Lactated Ringer’s should be administered
in the first 8 hours?
A. 12,800 mL
B. 6,400 mL
C. 3,200 mL
D. 1,600 mL
Answer: B
Rationale: The Parkland formula calculates total fluid requirements as 4 mL x weight in kg
x % TBSA. For this patient, the total for 24 hours is 4 x 80 x 40, which equals 12,800 mL.
Since half of this total must be given in the first 8 hours, the nurse should administer 6,400
mL.
2. Which clinical finding is most characteristic of the ‘emergent’ phase of burn management?
A. Hypernatremia and fluid volume excess
B. Hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis
C. Increased capillary permeability and massive fluid shifts
,D. Resolution of edema and diuresis
Answer: C
Rationale: During the emergent phase, there is a massive shift of fluids from the
intravascular space to the interstitial space. This is caused by increased capillary
permeability resulting from the thermal injury. This shift leads to profound edema and
potential hypovolemic shock if not managed.
3. A nurse is triaging victims of a mass casualty incident. Which patient should receive a ‘red
tag’?
A. An individual with no pulse or respirations
B. An individual with a closed fracture of the tibia
C. An individual with a sucking chest wound and labored breathing
D. An individual with minor lacerations and controlled bleeding
Answer: C
Rationale: Red tags are reserved for patients with life-threatening injuries who have a high
probability of survival if treated immediately. A sucking chest wound compromises
ventilation and requires urgent intervention to maintain the airway and breathing. Other
tags like green or yellow are for less urgent cases, while black is for those deceased or
expectant.
, 4. Which hemodynamic parameter is the most reliable indicator of effective fluid
resuscitation in a patient with hypovolemic shock?
A. Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP) of 50 mmHg
B. Heart rate of 120 beats per minute
C. Central Venous Pressure (CVP) of 1 mmHg
D. Urine output of at least 0.5 to 1 mL/kg/hr
Answer: D
Rationale: Urine output serves as a direct indicator of organ perfusion, specifically renal
blood flow. Maintaining an output of at least 0.5 to 1 mL/kg/hr suggests that the kidneys
and other vital organs are receiving adequate volume. This parameter is often more
reliable than blood pressure alone during the initial stages of resuscitation.
5. A patient is suspected of having neurogenic shock following a spinal cord injury. Which
vital sign triad is most indicative of this condition?
A. Hypertension, bradycardia, and irregular respirations
B. Hypotension, bradycardia, and warm/dry skin
C. Hypotension, tachycardia, and cool skin
D. Hypertension, tachycardia, and tachypnea
Answer: B
V2 | NUR 2755 Multidimensional Care IV /
MDC 4 | Rasmussen
1. A patient weighing 80 kg has sustained partial-thickness burns to 40% of their body. Using
the Parkland Formula (4 mL/kg/%TBSA), how much Lactated Ringer’s should be administered
in the first 8 hours?
A. 12,800 mL
B. 6,400 mL
C. 3,200 mL
D. 1,600 mL
Answer: B
Rationale: The Parkland formula calculates total fluid requirements as 4 mL x weight in kg
x % TBSA. For this patient, the total for 24 hours is 4 x 80 x 40, which equals 12,800 mL.
Since half of this total must be given in the first 8 hours, the nurse should administer 6,400
mL.
2. Which clinical finding is most characteristic of the ‘emergent’ phase of burn management?
A. Hypernatremia and fluid volume excess
B. Hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis
C. Increased capillary permeability and massive fluid shifts
,D. Resolution of edema and diuresis
Answer: C
Rationale: During the emergent phase, there is a massive shift of fluids from the
intravascular space to the interstitial space. This is caused by increased capillary
permeability resulting from the thermal injury. This shift leads to profound edema and
potential hypovolemic shock if not managed.
3. A nurse is triaging victims of a mass casualty incident. Which patient should receive a ‘red
tag’?
A. An individual with no pulse or respirations
B. An individual with a closed fracture of the tibia
C. An individual with a sucking chest wound and labored breathing
D. An individual with minor lacerations and controlled bleeding
Answer: C
Rationale: Red tags are reserved for patients with life-threatening injuries who have a high
probability of survival if treated immediately. A sucking chest wound compromises
ventilation and requires urgent intervention to maintain the airway and breathing. Other
tags like green or yellow are for less urgent cases, while black is for those deceased or
expectant.
, 4. Which hemodynamic parameter is the most reliable indicator of effective fluid
resuscitation in a patient with hypovolemic shock?
A. Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP) of 50 mmHg
B. Heart rate of 120 beats per minute
C. Central Venous Pressure (CVP) of 1 mmHg
D. Urine output of at least 0.5 to 1 mL/kg/hr
Answer: D
Rationale: Urine output serves as a direct indicator of organ perfusion, specifically renal
blood flow. Maintaining an output of at least 0.5 to 1 mL/kg/hr suggests that the kidneys
and other vital organs are receiving adequate volume. This parameter is often more
reliable than blood pressure alone during the initial stages of resuscitation.
5. A patient is suspected of having neurogenic shock following a spinal cord injury. Which
vital sign triad is most indicative of this condition?
A. Hypertension, bradycardia, and irregular respirations
B. Hypotension, bradycardia, and warm/dry skin
C. Hypotension, tachycardia, and cool skin
D. Hypertension, tachycardia, and tachypnea
Answer: B
