Edition | Real Exam Questions with 100%
Verified Correct Answers
Emergency Nurses Association (ENA) Trauma Nursing Core Course | Expert-
Verified Q&A | Certification-Ready Format
Introduction
This document provides a comprehensive evaluation instrument for the Emergency Nurses
Association (ENA) Trauma Nursing Core Course (TNCC) 9th Edition final examination aligned
with the 2026/2027 curriculum framework. The 50 questions presented herein span five
principal competency domains: trauma nursing concepts and initial assessment, airway
management and shock resuscitation, trauma to specific body systems, musculoskeletal injuries
and special populations, and triage and trauma system concepts. Each question is accompanied
by a verified correct answer and a detailed rationale grounded in current evidence-based trauma
management guidelines, ENA clinical standards, and established trauma nursing methodology.
The instrument is designed to assess a nurse's capacity to perform rapid primary and secondary
surveys, manage airway with cervical spine protection, recognize and treat shock, and deliver
systematic multisystem trauma care in high-acuity clinical settings. All answers have been verified
against the most current TNCC 9th Edition curriculum to ensure accuracy and alignment with the
standards required for TNCC certification.
Content Area Overview
Content Area Questions Key Topics Weight
Trauma Nursing 1 - 10 Primary survey (ABCDE), scene 20%
Concepts & Initial safety, mechanism of injury,
Assessment secondary survey, trauma team
roles, nursing process
Airway 11 - 20 Airway adjuncts, intubation, needle 20%
Management, decompression, chest tube,
Ventilation & hypovolemic/obstructive/neurogenic
Shock shock, fluid resuscitation, blood
Resuscitation products
Trauma to Specific 21 - 35 TBI (GCS, pupils, ICP), spinal cord 30%
Systems: Head, injury, flail chest, pneumothorax,
Spine, Thorax & cardiac tamponade, solid organ
Abdomen injury, hollow viscus injury,
abdominal assessment
Musculoskeletal, 36 - 43 Fracture classification, compartment 15%
Special Populations syndrome, pediatric trauma,
& Adjuncts to geriatric trauma, pregnant trauma,
Primary Survey FAST exam, needle
cricothyroidotomy
Triage, Transfer & 44 - 50 START triage, disaster management, 15%
Trauma System interfacility transfer, trauma center
Concepts levels, injury prevention,
performance improvement
,Examination Questions
Domain: Trauma Nursing Concepts & Initial Assessment (Questions 1-10)
Question 1: Which component of the primary survey is assessed first according to
the TNCC 9th Edition ABCDE framework?
A. Breathing and ventilation
B. Airway with cervical spine protection
C. Circulation with hemorrhage control
D. Disability/neurological status
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The TNCC 9th Edition primary survey begins with Airway with cervical spine
protection, as establishing a patent airway while maintaining spinal immobilization is the most
critical initial intervention. Without an adequate airway, all subsequent assessment and
resuscitation efforts become ineffective.
Question 2: What is the primary purpose of the mechanism of injury (MOI)
assessment in trauma nursing?
A. To determine the patient's insurance eligibility
B. To identify potential injuries based on the forces involved and guide the prioritization of
assessment and intervention
C. To establish the exact time of injury for medical records
D. To identify the patient's next of kin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The mechanism of injury assessment provides critical information about the type
and magnitude of forces applied to the body, enabling the trauma nurse to anticipate specific
injury patterns, prioritize the primary survey, and allocate resources appropriately for the most
likely life-threatening conditions.
Question 3: During the primary survey, which finding indicates an immediate life-
threatening airway obstruction?
A. Stridor and absent breath sounds with tracheal deviation
B. Minor facial lacerations
C. A hoarse voice following intubation
D. Subcutaneous emphysema on the chest wall
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Stridor is a high-pitched sound indicating upper airway obstruction, and absent
breath sounds with tracheal deviation suggest a tension pneumothorax causing airway
compromise. These findings require immediate intervention, including needle decompression
and definitive airway management.
Question 4: The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is used during which phase of trauma
assessment?
A. Scene size-up
B. The disability (D) component of the primary survey
C. The detailed head-to-toe secondary survey
D. The tertiary assessment
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The GCS is assessed during the Disability (D) component of the primary survey as a
rapid neurological evaluation. It provides an objective measure of eye opening, verbal response,
and motor response to quickly identify patients with traumatic brain injury requiring
immediate intervention.
Question 5: Which of the following is the correct sequence for performing the
secondary survey in trauma?
, A. Head-to-toe assessment,AMPLE history, vital signs, diagnostic studies
B. AMPLE history, full head-to-toe assessment, vital signs, pain management
C. Vital signs, head-to-toe assessment,AMPLE history, diagnostic studies
D. Pain management, diagnostic studies, head-to-toe assessment,AMPLE history
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The secondary survey follows a systematic approach beginning with theAMPLE
history (Allergies, Medications, Past medical history, Last meal, Events/environment), followed
by a comprehensive head-to-toe assessment, vital signs monitoring, and appropriate diagnostic
studies.
Question 6: In trauma nursing, what is the significance of the 'golden hour'
concept?
A. It refers to the first 60 minutes of a trauma nurse's shift
B. It emphasizes the critical importance of rapid identification and treatment of life-
threatening injuries within the first hour following injury to optimize survival outcomes
C. It describes the period during which antibiotics must be administered
D. It indicates the maximum time a patient can wait for surgery
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The golden hour concept underscores that the probability of survival decreases
significantly when definitive care is delayed beyond 60 minutes after injury. This principle
drives the urgency of the primary survey, rapid transport, and timely interventions in trauma
systems.
Question 7: Which assessment finding during the primary survey would prompt
immediate intervention for circulation?
A. Capillary refill of 3 seconds in a cold environment
B. Hemorrhage from an extremity wound that is not controlled by direct pressure, requiring
tourniquet application
C. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
D. Heart rate of 88 beats per minute
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Uncontrolled external hemorrhage is addressed immediately under Circulation
with Hemorrhage Control (C) in the primary survey. When direct pressure fails to control
bleeding, a tourniquet should be applied proximal to the wound. This takes precedence over
obtaining vital signs or assessing capillary refill.
Question 8: What is the primary role of the trauma nurse during the initial
resuscitation phase?
A. Performing surgical procedures
B. Coordinating simultaneous assessment, prioritizing interventions, monitoring the
patient's response to treatment, and communicating findings to the trauma team
C. Completing all documentation before treatment
D. Obtaining informed consent for procedures
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The trauma nurse plays a central role in the resuscitation team by performing
rapid assessment, initiating life-saving interventions, monitoring patient responses, and
facilitating communication among team members. This coordinated approach ensures that
critical interventions are delivered efficiently during the golden hour.
Question 9: Which of the following is included in theAMPLE history obtained
during the secondary survey?
A. Patient's social security number
B. Allergies, Medications, Past medical history, Last meal, and Events/environment
surrounding the injury
C. Patient's dietary preferences