RN VATI Comprehensive Predictor 2026
– Updated Exam-Style Practice Guide
with and Accuracy-Reviewed Rationales
| Q&A
Question 1
A nurse is caring for a client who is 24 hours post-operative following an
abdominal hysterectomy. The client reports sudden chest pain and shortness of
breath. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Administer oxygen via non-rebreather mask.
B. Notify the provider.
C. Check the client's oxygen saturation.
D. Elevate the head of the bed.
Answer: A. Airway and breathing are the priority. The first action is to apply high-
flow oxygen to treat hypoxemia while preparing for further interventions.
Elevating the head of the bed (D) helps but is not the first action; checking SpO2
(C) and notifying the provider (B) should occur after initiating oxygen.
Question 2
A nurse is preparing to administer heparin subcutaneously to a client. Which of
the following actions is correct?
A. Aspirate for blood return before injecting.
B. Massage the site vigorously after injection.
C. Administer the injection in the abdomen, at least 2 inches away from the
umbilicus.
D. Use a 22-gauge, 1.5-inch needle.
Answer: C. Heparin is given subcutaneously in the abdomen, at least 2 inches
from the umbilicus. Do not aspirate (A) (it can cause hematoma), do not massage
,(B) (can cause bruising/bleeding), and use a small-gauge (25-26G) short needle
(D).
Question 3
A client with major depressive disorder is prescribed phenelzine. Which of the
following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
A. Aged cheese and red wine.
B. Bananas and avocados.
C. Broccoli and spinach.
D. Apples and pears.
Answer: A. Phenelzine is an MAOI. Tyramine-rich foods like aged cheese, cured
meats, and red wine can cause a hypertensive crisis. Bananas (B) are moderate in
tyramine but less dangerous; (C) and (D) are safe.
Question 4
A nurse is delegating care to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which of
the following tasks is appropriate to delegate?
A. Measuring the intake and output for a client with a Foley catheter.
B. Teaching a client how to use an incentive spirometer.
C. Assessing a client's surgical incision for redness.
D. Administering a tap-water enema.
Answer: A. UAPs can measure and record intake/output. Teaching (B) and
assessment (C) require nursing judgment. Enema administration (D) is generally
not delegated to UAPs in most states.
Question 5
A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following
laboratory values should the nurse monitor most closely?
A. Serum sodium.
B. Serum potassium.
,C. Serum calcium.
D. Serum magnesium.
Answer: B. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes potassium wasting.
Hypokalemia can lead to cardiac dysrhythmias. While sodium (A), calcium (C), and
magnesium (D) can be affected, potassium is the most critical.
Question 6
A nurse is caring for a client with tuberculosis who is on airborne precautions.
Which of the following personal protective equipment (PPE) is required when
entering the room?
A. Standard surgical mask.
B. N95 respirator.
C. Gown and gloves only.
D. Full hazmat suit.
Answer: B. Tuberculosis requires airborne precautions, which mandate an N95 or
HEPA respirator. A surgical mask (A) is insufficient. Gown/gloves (C) are for
contact precautions.
Question 7
A client is scheduled for an intravenous pyelogram (IVP). Which of the following is
a priority nursing action?
A. Administer a laxative the night before.
B. Assess the client for an allergy to shellfish or iodine.
C. Restrict fluids for 12 hours prior.
D. Administer oral contrast dye.
Answer: B. IVP uses iodine-based contrast. A shellfish/iodine allergy increases risk
for anaphylaxis. Laxatives (A) may be ordered but are not priority; fluids are
usually encouraged (C); oral dye (D) is for GI studies, not IVP.
Question 8
, A nurse is assessing a newborn 5 minutes after birth. The heart rate is 110/min,
respiratory effort is vigorous with a strong cry, muscle tone is active, reflexes are
grimacing, and the skin is pink with acrocyanosis. What is the APGAR score?
A. 7
B. 8
C. 9
D. 10
Answer: C. HR=2, Resp=2, Tone=2, Reflex=1 (grimace only, not cough/sneeze),
Color=1 (acrocyanosis = pink body, blue extremities) = Total 9. Acrocyanosis is
normal in the first few minutes.
Question 9
A client with cirrhosis has an elevated ammonia level. Which of the following
dietary modifications should the nurse anticipate?
A. High-protein diet.
B. Low-protein diet.
C. High-sodium diet.
D. Fluid restriction to 500 mL/day.
Answer: B. Elevated ammonia in cirrhosis requires a low-protein diet to reduce
ammonia production. High-protein (A) worsens it. Sodium restriction (C) is for
ascites/fluid retention, not ammonia.
Question 10
A nurse is caring for a client receiving a continuous heparin infusion. Which of the
following laboratory tests is used to monitor therapeutic effect?
A. PT/INR.
B. aPTT.
C. Platelet count.
D. Hemoglobin.
– Updated Exam-Style Practice Guide
with and Accuracy-Reviewed Rationales
| Q&A
Question 1
A nurse is caring for a client who is 24 hours post-operative following an
abdominal hysterectomy. The client reports sudden chest pain and shortness of
breath. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Administer oxygen via non-rebreather mask.
B. Notify the provider.
C. Check the client's oxygen saturation.
D. Elevate the head of the bed.
Answer: A. Airway and breathing are the priority. The first action is to apply high-
flow oxygen to treat hypoxemia while preparing for further interventions.
Elevating the head of the bed (D) helps but is not the first action; checking SpO2
(C) and notifying the provider (B) should occur after initiating oxygen.
Question 2
A nurse is preparing to administer heparin subcutaneously to a client. Which of
the following actions is correct?
A. Aspirate for blood return before injecting.
B. Massage the site vigorously after injection.
C. Administer the injection in the abdomen, at least 2 inches away from the
umbilicus.
D. Use a 22-gauge, 1.5-inch needle.
Answer: C. Heparin is given subcutaneously in the abdomen, at least 2 inches
from the umbilicus. Do not aspirate (A) (it can cause hematoma), do not massage
,(B) (can cause bruising/bleeding), and use a small-gauge (25-26G) short needle
(D).
Question 3
A client with major depressive disorder is prescribed phenelzine. Which of the
following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
A. Aged cheese and red wine.
B. Bananas and avocados.
C. Broccoli and spinach.
D. Apples and pears.
Answer: A. Phenelzine is an MAOI. Tyramine-rich foods like aged cheese, cured
meats, and red wine can cause a hypertensive crisis. Bananas (B) are moderate in
tyramine but less dangerous; (C) and (D) are safe.
Question 4
A nurse is delegating care to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which of
the following tasks is appropriate to delegate?
A. Measuring the intake and output for a client with a Foley catheter.
B. Teaching a client how to use an incentive spirometer.
C. Assessing a client's surgical incision for redness.
D. Administering a tap-water enema.
Answer: A. UAPs can measure and record intake/output. Teaching (B) and
assessment (C) require nursing judgment. Enema administration (D) is generally
not delegated to UAPs in most states.
Question 5
A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following
laboratory values should the nurse monitor most closely?
A. Serum sodium.
B. Serum potassium.
,C. Serum calcium.
D. Serum magnesium.
Answer: B. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes potassium wasting.
Hypokalemia can lead to cardiac dysrhythmias. While sodium (A), calcium (C), and
magnesium (D) can be affected, potassium is the most critical.
Question 6
A nurse is caring for a client with tuberculosis who is on airborne precautions.
Which of the following personal protective equipment (PPE) is required when
entering the room?
A. Standard surgical mask.
B. N95 respirator.
C. Gown and gloves only.
D. Full hazmat suit.
Answer: B. Tuberculosis requires airborne precautions, which mandate an N95 or
HEPA respirator. A surgical mask (A) is insufficient. Gown/gloves (C) are for
contact precautions.
Question 7
A client is scheduled for an intravenous pyelogram (IVP). Which of the following is
a priority nursing action?
A. Administer a laxative the night before.
B. Assess the client for an allergy to shellfish or iodine.
C. Restrict fluids for 12 hours prior.
D. Administer oral contrast dye.
Answer: B. IVP uses iodine-based contrast. A shellfish/iodine allergy increases risk
for anaphylaxis. Laxatives (A) may be ordered but are not priority; fluids are
usually encouraged (C); oral dye (D) is for GI studies, not IVP.
Question 8
, A nurse is assessing a newborn 5 minutes after birth. The heart rate is 110/min,
respiratory effort is vigorous with a strong cry, muscle tone is active, reflexes are
grimacing, and the skin is pink with acrocyanosis. What is the APGAR score?
A. 7
B. 8
C. 9
D. 10
Answer: C. HR=2, Resp=2, Tone=2, Reflex=1 (grimace only, not cough/sneeze),
Color=1 (acrocyanosis = pink body, blue extremities) = Total 9. Acrocyanosis is
normal in the first few minutes.
Question 9
A client with cirrhosis has an elevated ammonia level. Which of the following
dietary modifications should the nurse anticipate?
A. High-protein diet.
B. Low-protein diet.
C. High-sodium diet.
D. Fluid restriction to 500 mL/day.
Answer: B. Elevated ammonia in cirrhosis requires a low-protein diet to reduce
ammonia production. High-protein (A) worsens it. Sodium restriction (C) is for
ascites/fluid retention, not ammonia.
Question 10
A nurse is caring for a client receiving a continuous heparin infusion. Which of the
following laboratory tests is used to monitor therapeutic effect?
A. PT/INR.
B. aPTT.
C. Platelet count.
D. Hemoglobin.
