RN Pharmacology 2026
Question 1
A nurse is caring for a client receiving a continuous heparin infusion for treatment of a
pulmonary embolism. Which laboratory value indicates the medication is within the therapeutic
range?
A. INR 2.5
B. Platelet count 90,000/mm³
C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) 70 seconds
D. Prothrombin time (PT) 12 seconds
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The therapeutic aPTT for unfractionated heparin is typically 1.5 to 2.5 times the
control value (approximately 60–80 seconds). INR is used to monitor warfarin therapy.
,Question 2
A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a client with heart failure. Which assessment
finding requires the nurse to withhold the medication and notify the provider?
A. Apical pulse of 54/min
B. Potassium level of 4.1 mEq/L
C. Blood pressure of 128/76 mm Hg
D. Respiratory rate of 18/min
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Digoxin should be withheld if the adult apical pulse is less than 60/min because of
the risk of severe bradycardia.
,Question 3
A client who is taking phenelzine (an MAOI) reports eating pizza with aged cheese and develops
a severe headache and blood pressure of 210/118 mm Hg. Which complication should the nurse
suspect?
A. Serotonin syndrome
B. Hypertensive crisis
C. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
D. Acute dystonia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Tyramine-containing foods consumed while taking MAOIs can trigger a life-
threatening hypertensive crisis.
, Question 4
A nurse is caring for a client receiving vancomycin intravenously. Which intervention is most
appropriate to reduce the risk of Red Man Syndrome?
A. Administer the medication by IV push.
B. Infuse the medication slowly over at least 60 minutes.
C. Dilute the medication in dextrose only.
D. Restrict fluids during the infusion.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Vancomycin should be infused slowly to prevent histamine release associated with
Red Man Syndrome.
Question 1
A nurse is caring for a client receiving a continuous heparin infusion for treatment of a
pulmonary embolism. Which laboratory value indicates the medication is within the therapeutic
range?
A. INR 2.5
B. Platelet count 90,000/mm³
C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) 70 seconds
D. Prothrombin time (PT) 12 seconds
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The therapeutic aPTT for unfractionated heparin is typically 1.5 to 2.5 times the
control value (approximately 60–80 seconds). INR is used to monitor warfarin therapy.
,Question 2
A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a client with heart failure. Which assessment
finding requires the nurse to withhold the medication and notify the provider?
A. Apical pulse of 54/min
B. Potassium level of 4.1 mEq/L
C. Blood pressure of 128/76 mm Hg
D. Respiratory rate of 18/min
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Digoxin should be withheld if the adult apical pulse is less than 60/min because of
the risk of severe bradycardia.
,Question 3
A client who is taking phenelzine (an MAOI) reports eating pizza with aged cheese and develops
a severe headache and blood pressure of 210/118 mm Hg. Which complication should the nurse
suspect?
A. Serotonin syndrome
B. Hypertensive crisis
C. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
D. Acute dystonia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Tyramine-containing foods consumed while taking MAOIs can trigger a life-
threatening hypertensive crisis.
, Question 4
A nurse is caring for a client receiving vancomycin intravenously. Which intervention is most
appropriate to reduce the risk of Red Man Syndrome?
A. Administer the medication by IV push.
B. Infuse the medication slowly over at least 60 minutes.
C. Dilute the medication in dextrose only.
D. Restrict fluids during the infusion.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Vancomycin should be infused slowly to prevent histamine release associated with
Red Man Syndrome.
