Fall Semester 2026–2027 ATI Comprehensive Predictor Updated 2026 |
190+ Questions and Answers | ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor Exam
Prep Study Guide, Practice Exam, Comprehensive Review, Test Bank,
Medical-Surgical Nursing, Pharmacology, Maternal-Newborn Nursing,
Pediatric Nursing, Mental Health Nursing, Leadership and Management,
Fundamentals of Nursing, NCLEX Readiness, Detailed Rationales and
Complete Revision Material
Question 1: A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with a new
prescription for warfarin. Which of the following over-the-counter medications
should the nurse instruct the client to avoid due to an increased risk of bleeding?
A. Acetaminophen
B. Ibuprofen
C. Diphenhydramine
D. Loratadine
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Ibuprofen
Rationale: Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that inhibits
platelet aggregation and can significantly increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding
when taken concurrently with warfarin, an anticoagulant. Acetaminophen is the
preferred analgesic for patients on warfarin as it has minimal effect on platelet function,
though high doses require monitoring.
Question 2: A client who is postoperative day one following a total hip arthroplasty
reports sudden onset of dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain. Which of the following
actions should the nurse take first?
A. Administer prescribed PRN oxygen via nasal cannula
B. Assess the client's oxygen saturation
C. Notify the healthcare provider
D. Elevate the head of the bed
CORRECT ANSWER: D. Elevate the head of the bed
Rationale: The priority action is to elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees to facilitate
breathing and maximize ventilation. While assessing oxygen saturation and
administering oxygen are critical, positioning is the immediate, non-invasive
intervention that optimizes respiratory mechanics and should be performed first to
improve gas exchange.
Question 3: A nurse is caring for a client with an indwelling urinary catheter. Which
of the following actions is most appropriate to prevent catheter-associated urinary
tract infections (CAUTIs)?
A. Irrigate the catheter with sterile normal saline every 8 hours
B. Cleanse the perineal area with antiseptic solution twice daily
C. Ensure the collection bag is below the level of the bladder
D. Change the catheter every 72 hours
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Ensure the collection bag is below the level of the bladder
Rationale: Maintaining the collection bag below the level of the bladder ensures
,continuous gravity drainage and prevents backflow of urine into the bladder, which is a
primary mechanism for introducing pathogens. Routine irrigation, scheduled catheter
changes, and antiseptic cleansing are not recommended for CAUTI prevention unless
specifically indicated.
Question 4: A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion to a client.
Which of the following intravenous solutions is appropriate to infuse concurrently
with packed red blood cells?
A. Lactated Ringer's solution
B. Dextrose 5% in water
C. 0.9% Sodium Chloride
D. Dextrose 5% in 0.9% Sodium Chloride
CORRECT ANSWER: C. 0.9% Sodium Chloride
Rationale: 0.9% Sodium Chloride (Normal Saline) is the only solution that is isotonic
and compatible with packed red blood cells. It prevents hemolysis and agglutination.
Lactated Ringer's contains calcium, which can cause clotting of the blood product, and
dextrose solutions can cause hemolysis due to changes in osmotic pressure.
Question 5: A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide and digoxin. Which
of the following laboratory values is most important for the nurse to monitor?
A. Serum sodium
B. Serum potassium
C. Serum calcium
D. Serum magnesium
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Serum potassium
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes potassium excretion, which can
lead to hypokalemia. Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity by enhancing
the sensitivity of cardiac muscle to digoxin, potentially leading to fatal arrhythmias.
Monitoring serum potassium is crucial for safe dual therapy.
Question 6: A nurse is assessing a client with a traumatic brain injury. Which of the
following findings indicates increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?
A. Hypotension
B. Tachycardia
C. Widening pulse pressure
D. Pinpoint pupils
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Widening pulse pressure
Rationale: Widening pulse pressure, along with bradycardia and irregular respirations
(Cushing’s triad), is a late manifestation of increased intracranial pressure. It reflects
the body's attempt to maintain cerebral perfusion pressure in response to rising ICP.
Question 7: A nurse is teaching a client with a new diagnosis of type 1 diabetes
mellitus about insulin administration. Which of the following instructions is correct
regarding the storage of unopened vials of insulin?
A. Store in the freezer to extend shelf life
B. Store in the refrigerator
,C. Store at room temperature in direct sunlight
D. Store in the bathroom cabinet
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Store in the refrigerator
Rationale: Unopened vials of insulin should be stored in the refrigerator between 36°F
and 46°F (2°C and 8°C) to maintain potency until their expiration date. Insulin should
never be frozen or exposed to extreme heat or direct sunlight, as these conditions will
degrade the medication.
Question 8: A nurse is caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN).
Which of the following assessments is the priority to monitor for a complication of
this therapy?
A. Blood glucose levels
B. Daily weight
C. Intake and output
D. Serum albumin levels
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Blood glucose levels
Rationale: TPN solutions have a high dextrose concentration, which can lead to
hyperglycemia. This is the most immediate and common metabolic complication
requiring monitoring. While the other options are important, blood glucose monitoring
is the priority to prevent hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome.
Question 9: A nurse is auscultating a client’s lung sounds and hears high-pitched,
continuous sounds during inspiration and expiration. Which of the following terms
describes this finding?
A. Crackles
B. Rhonchi
C. Wheezes
D. Stridor
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Wheezes
Rationale: Wheezes are high-pitched, musical, continuous sounds that occur when air
flows through narrowed airways. They are heard during inspiration and expiration, most
commonly in conditions like asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
Stridor is a high-pitched sound heard primarily during inspiration, indicating upper
airway obstruction.
Question 10: A client has orders for a nasogastric (NG) tube to be inserted for
gastric decompression. In which of the following positions should the nurse place
the client for insertion?
A. Supine with the head of the bed flat
B. Prone
C. High-Fowler's position
D. Trendelenburg position
CORRECT ANSWER: C. High-Fowler's position
Rationale: The high-Fowler's position (head of bed elevated 45-90 degrees) facilitates
the passage of the NG tube through the esophagus and into the stomach by utilizing
, gravity and aligning the natural curvature of the upper airway and digestive tract. This
position also minimizes the risk of aspiration.
Question 11: A nurse is assessing a client for signs of digoxin toxicity. Which of the
following symptoms is a common early indicator?
A. Constipation
B. Tachycardia
C. Anorexia
D. Hyperglycemia
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Anorexia
Rationale: Anorexia, along with nausea, vomiting, and visual disturbances (like seeing
yellow-green halos), are common early signs of digoxin toxicity. These gastrointestinal
symptoms precede the more severe cardiac arrhythmias.
Question 12: A nurse is performing a 12-lead ECG on a client. Which of the following
actions should the nurse take to ensure a good quality tracing?
A. Instruct the client to hold their breath during the tracing
B. Attach the electrodes to the client's bony prominences
C. Ensure the skin is clean, dry, and free of lotion
D. Place the client in a supine position with the head elevated
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Ensure the skin is clean, dry, and free of lotion
Rationale: Clean, dry, and lotion-free skin is essential for optimal electrode adhesion
and conduction, which produces a clear, artifact-free ECG tracing. Lotions and oils act
as barriers to electrical conduction, leading to poor quality tracings.
Question 13: A client is receiving continuous enteral feedings via a nasogastric
tube. The nurse should place the client in which of the following positions to
reduce the risk of aspiration?
A. Supine
B. Left lateral position
C. Semi-Fowler's position
D. Trendelenburg position
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Semi-Fowler's position
Rationale: The semi-Fowler's position (head of bed elevated 30-45 degrees) uses
gravity to prevent gastric contents from refluxing into the esophagus and being
aspirated into the lungs. This is a critical intervention for clients receiving enteral
feedings.
Question 14: A nurse is providing postoperative care for a client following a
thyroidectomy. Which of the following pieces of equipment should the nurse have
at the bedside?
A. Tracheostomy set
B. Nasogastric tube
C. Chest tube tray
D. Central line kit
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Tracheostomy set
190+ Questions and Answers | ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor Exam
Prep Study Guide, Practice Exam, Comprehensive Review, Test Bank,
Medical-Surgical Nursing, Pharmacology, Maternal-Newborn Nursing,
Pediatric Nursing, Mental Health Nursing, Leadership and Management,
Fundamentals of Nursing, NCLEX Readiness, Detailed Rationales and
Complete Revision Material
Question 1: A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with a new
prescription for warfarin. Which of the following over-the-counter medications
should the nurse instruct the client to avoid due to an increased risk of bleeding?
A. Acetaminophen
B. Ibuprofen
C. Diphenhydramine
D. Loratadine
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Ibuprofen
Rationale: Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that inhibits
platelet aggregation and can significantly increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding
when taken concurrently with warfarin, an anticoagulant. Acetaminophen is the
preferred analgesic for patients on warfarin as it has minimal effect on platelet function,
though high doses require monitoring.
Question 2: A client who is postoperative day one following a total hip arthroplasty
reports sudden onset of dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain. Which of the following
actions should the nurse take first?
A. Administer prescribed PRN oxygen via nasal cannula
B. Assess the client's oxygen saturation
C. Notify the healthcare provider
D. Elevate the head of the bed
CORRECT ANSWER: D. Elevate the head of the bed
Rationale: The priority action is to elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees to facilitate
breathing and maximize ventilation. While assessing oxygen saturation and
administering oxygen are critical, positioning is the immediate, non-invasive
intervention that optimizes respiratory mechanics and should be performed first to
improve gas exchange.
Question 3: A nurse is caring for a client with an indwelling urinary catheter. Which
of the following actions is most appropriate to prevent catheter-associated urinary
tract infections (CAUTIs)?
A. Irrigate the catheter with sterile normal saline every 8 hours
B. Cleanse the perineal area with antiseptic solution twice daily
C. Ensure the collection bag is below the level of the bladder
D. Change the catheter every 72 hours
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Ensure the collection bag is below the level of the bladder
Rationale: Maintaining the collection bag below the level of the bladder ensures
,continuous gravity drainage and prevents backflow of urine into the bladder, which is a
primary mechanism for introducing pathogens. Routine irrigation, scheduled catheter
changes, and antiseptic cleansing are not recommended for CAUTI prevention unless
specifically indicated.
Question 4: A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion to a client.
Which of the following intravenous solutions is appropriate to infuse concurrently
with packed red blood cells?
A. Lactated Ringer's solution
B. Dextrose 5% in water
C. 0.9% Sodium Chloride
D. Dextrose 5% in 0.9% Sodium Chloride
CORRECT ANSWER: C. 0.9% Sodium Chloride
Rationale: 0.9% Sodium Chloride (Normal Saline) is the only solution that is isotonic
and compatible with packed red blood cells. It prevents hemolysis and agglutination.
Lactated Ringer's contains calcium, which can cause clotting of the blood product, and
dextrose solutions can cause hemolysis due to changes in osmotic pressure.
Question 5: A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide and digoxin. Which
of the following laboratory values is most important for the nurse to monitor?
A. Serum sodium
B. Serum potassium
C. Serum calcium
D. Serum magnesium
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Serum potassium
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes potassium excretion, which can
lead to hypokalemia. Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity by enhancing
the sensitivity of cardiac muscle to digoxin, potentially leading to fatal arrhythmias.
Monitoring serum potassium is crucial for safe dual therapy.
Question 6: A nurse is assessing a client with a traumatic brain injury. Which of the
following findings indicates increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?
A. Hypotension
B. Tachycardia
C. Widening pulse pressure
D. Pinpoint pupils
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Widening pulse pressure
Rationale: Widening pulse pressure, along with bradycardia and irregular respirations
(Cushing’s triad), is a late manifestation of increased intracranial pressure. It reflects
the body's attempt to maintain cerebral perfusion pressure in response to rising ICP.
Question 7: A nurse is teaching a client with a new diagnosis of type 1 diabetes
mellitus about insulin administration. Which of the following instructions is correct
regarding the storage of unopened vials of insulin?
A. Store in the freezer to extend shelf life
B. Store in the refrigerator
,C. Store at room temperature in direct sunlight
D. Store in the bathroom cabinet
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Store in the refrigerator
Rationale: Unopened vials of insulin should be stored in the refrigerator between 36°F
and 46°F (2°C and 8°C) to maintain potency until their expiration date. Insulin should
never be frozen or exposed to extreme heat or direct sunlight, as these conditions will
degrade the medication.
Question 8: A nurse is caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN).
Which of the following assessments is the priority to monitor for a complication of
this therapy?
A. Blood glucose levels
B. Daily weight
C. Intake and output
D. Serum albumin levels
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Blood glucose levels
Rationale: TPN solutions have a high dextrose concentration, which can lead to
hyperglycemia. This is the most immediate and common metabolic complication
requiring monitoring. While the other options are important, blood glucose monitoring
is the priority to prevent hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome.
Question 9: A nurse is auscultating a client’s lung sounds and hears high-pitched,
continuous sounds during inspiration and expiration. Which of the following terms
describes this finding?
A. Crackles
B. Rhonchi
C. Wheezes
D. Stridor
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Wheezes
Rationale: Wheezes are high-pitched, musical, continuous sounds that occur when air
flows through narrowed airways. They are heard during inspiration and expiration, most
commonly in conditions like asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
Stridor is a high-pitched sound heard primarily during inspiration, indicating upper
airway obstruction.
Question 10: A client has orders for a nasogastric (NG) tube to be inserted for
gastric decompression. In which of the following positions should the nurse place
the client for insertion?
A. Supine with the head of the bed flat
B. Prone
C. High-Fowler's position
D. Trendelenburg position
CORRECT ANSWER: C. High-Fowler's position
Rationale: The high-Fowler's position (head of bed elevated 45-90 degrees) facilitates
the passage of the NG tube through the esophagus and into the stomach by utilizing
, gravity and aligning the natural curvature of the upper airway and digestive tract. This
position also minimizes the risk of aspiration.
Question 11: A nurse is assessing a client for signs of digoxin toxicity. Which of the
following symptoms is a common early indicator?
A. Constipation
B. Tachycardia
C. Anorexia
D. Hyperglycemia
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Anorexia
Rationale: Anorexia, along with nausea, vomiting, and visual disturbances (like seeing
yellow-green halos), are common early signs of digoxin toxicity. These gastrointestinal
symptoms precede the more severe cardiac arrhythmias.
Question 12: A nurse is performing a 12-lead ECG on a client. Which of the following
actions should the nurse take to ensure a good quality tracing?
A. Instruct the client to hold their breath during the tracing
B. Attach the electrodes to the client's bony prominences
C. Ensure the skin is clean, dry, and free of lotion
D. Place the client in a supine position with the head elevated
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Ensure the skin is clean, dry, and free of lotion
Rationale: Clean, dry, and lotion-free skin is essential for optimal electrode adhesion
and conduction, which produces a clear, artifact-free ECG tracing. Lotions and oils act
as barriers to electrical conduction, leading to poor quality tracings.
Question 13: A client is receiving continuous enteral feedings via a nasogastric
tube. The nurse should place the client in which of the following positions to
reduce the risk of aspiration?
A. Supine
B. Left lateral position
C. Semi-Fowler's position
D. Trendelenburg position
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Semi-Fowler's position
Rationale: The semi-Fowler's position (head of bed elevated 30-45 degrees) uses
gravity to prevent gastric contents from refluxing into the esophagus and being
aspirated into the lungs. This is a critical intervention for clients receiving enteral
feedings.
Question 14: A nurse is providing postoperative care for a client following a
thyroidectomy. Which of the following pieces of equipment should the nurse have
at the bedside?
A. Tracheostomy set
B. Nasogastric tube
C. Chest tube tray
D. Central line kit
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Tracheostomy set
