Fall Semester 2026–2027 ATI Comprehensive Predictor Updated 2026 |
190+ Questions and Answers | ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor Study
Guide, Practice Exam, Comprehensive Review, Exam Prep Test Bank,
Medical-Surgical Nursing, Pharmacology, Maternal-Newborn Nursing,
Pediatrics, Mental Health Nursing, Leadership and Management, NCLEX
Readiness, Detailed Rationales and Complete Revision Material
Question 1: A nurse is assessing a client who is 24 hours post-operative following
an abdominal hysterectomy. Which of the following findings is the priority for the
nurse to report to the provider?
A. Serosanguineous drainage on the dressing
B. Pain rated as a 5 on a 0-10 scale
C. Urinary output of 25 mL/hr
D. Audible bowel sounds in all four quadrants
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Urinary output of 25 mL/hr
Rationale: A urinary output of less than 30 mL/hr indicates inadequate renal perfusion
and is a sign of potential hypovolemia or acute kidney injury. This is a priority finding that
requires immediate reporting to the provider. Serosanguineous drainage and moderate
pain are expected findings, and bowel sounds are a positive sign of returning
gastrointestinal function.
Question 2: A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with a new
prescription for warfarin. Which of the following dietary statements by the client
indicates a need for further teaching?
A. "I will limit my intake of green leafy vegetables."
B. "I can continue to eat my usual amount of cranberry sauce."
C. "I will avoid drinking grapefruit juice."
D. "I should maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K-rich foods."
CORRECT ANSWER: B. "I can continue to eat my usual amount of cranberry sauce."
Rationale: Cranberry juice and products can increase the risk of bleeding by
potentiating the effects of warfarin. Clients should avoid or significantly limit cranberry
products. The other statements are correct: maintaining a consistent intake of vitamin K
is crucial for therapeutic effect, and limiting green leafy vegetables (which are high in
vitamin K) is standard teaching.
Question 3: A nurse is caring for a client with pneumonia who has a prescription for
oxygen at 4 L/min via nasal cannula. Which of the following assessment findings
indicates the therapy is effective?
A. Respiratory rate of 26/min
B. Oxygen saturation of 92%
C. Heart rate of 110/min
D. Use of accessory muscles
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Oxygen saturation of 92%
Rationale: A target oxygen saturation for a client with pneumonia is typically 88-92% for
those at risk for hypercapnia, but generally >92% for others. An SpO2 of 92% indicates
,adequate oxygenation. Tachypnea, tachycardia, and accessory muscle use are signs of
respiratory distress and indicate ineffective therapy.
Question 4: A nurse is preparing to administer 1,000 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride IV
over 8 hours to a client. The drop factor is 15 gtt/mL. What is the drip rate in
gtt/min?
A. 31 gtt/min
B. 125 gtt/min
C. 21 gtt/min
D. 85 gtt/min
CORRECT ANSWER: A. 31 gtt/min
Rationale: Total volume is 1000 mL. Time in minutes is 8 hours × 60 = 480 minutes. The
formula is (Volume/Time) × Drop factor = (1000/480) × 15 = 2.08 × 15 = 31.2. The correct
drip rate is 31 gtt/min.
Question 5: A nurse is assessing a newborn who is 12 hours old. Which of the
following findings should be reported to the provider?
A. Acrocyanosis of the hands and feet
B. Axillary temperature of 36.5°C (97.7°F)
C. A respiratory rate of 68/min with nasal flaring
D. Passing a dark, sticky stool
CORRECT ANSWER: C. A respiratory rate of 68/min with nasal flaring
Rationale: A respiratory rate greater than 60/min with nasal flaring is a sign of respiratory
distress and should be reported. Acrocyanosis is normal in the first 24 hours, an axillary
temperature of 36.5°C is within normal range, and passing meconium (dark, sticky
stool) is expected.
Question 6: A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new colostomy. Which of
the following interventions should the nurse include to promote skin integrity?
A. Apply a skin barrier powder to the peristomal area daily.
B. Clean the peristomal skin with an alcohol-based cleanser.
C. Change the ostomy appliance only when it is leaking.
D. Measure the stoma size and cut the appliance to fit snugly around it.
CORRECT ANSWER: D. Measure the stoma size and cut the appliance to fit snugly
around it.
Rationale: The appliance opening should be cut to fit snugly around the stoma (no more
than 1/8 inch larger) to prevent effluent from contacting the skin. Skin barrier powder is
used for moist, denuded skin, not daily. Alcohol-based cleansers are drying and
damaging to the skin. Appliances should be changed regularly (every 3-7 days) or when
leaking, not just when leaking.
Question 7: A client who is pregnant is at 36 weeks of gestation and reports dizzy
and lightheaded when lying flat on her back. The nurse should identify this as an
indication of which of the following?
A. Supine hypotension syndrome
B. Preeclampsia
,C. Anemia
D. Hyperemesis gravidarum
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Supine hypotension syndrome
Rationale: Supine hypotension syndrome occurs when the gravid uterus compresses
the vena cava, reducing venous return and cardiac output, causing dizziness and
lightheadedness. This is a normal physiological response to late pregnancy and is
relieved by turning to the left side. Preeclampsia is characterized by hypertension and
proteinuria, anemia by fatigue and pallor, and hyperemesis by severe vomiting.
Question 8: A nurse is caring for a client with a nasogastric tube connected to low
intermittent suction. Which of the following assessment findings indicates a
complication?
A. pH of gastric aspirate is 4
B. Gastric output of 100 mL in 4 hours
C. Reports of a dry mouth
D. Abdominal distension with nausea
CORRECT ANSWER: D. Abdominal distension with nausea
Rationale: Abdominal distension and nausea indicate a malfunction of the NG tube
(e.g., clogged tube or improper placement), which is a complication. A pH of 4 is
expected for gastric contents. Output of 100 mL in 4 hours and a dry mouth are
expected findings.
Question 9: A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has end-
stage renal disease. Which of the following findings is consistent with this
condition?
A. BUN 15 mg/dL
B. Creatinine 0.8 mg/dL
C. Potassium 5.8 mEq/L
D. Hemoglobin 16 g/dL
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Potassium 5.8 mEq/L
Rationale: End-stage renal disease results in the kidneys' inability to excrete potassium,
leading to hyperkalemia (normal is 3.5-5.0 mEq/L). BUN and creatinine would be
elevated, not low. Anemia (low hemoglobin) is common due to decreased
erythropoietin production.
Question 10: A nurse is administering the first dose of an antibiotic to a client.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Educate the client about potential adverse effects.
B. Document the administration in the electronic health record.
C. Check the client's allergy history.
D. Assess the client's vital signs.
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Check the client's allergy history.
Rationale: The priority action before administering any medication, especially an
antibiotic, is to verify the client's allergy status to prevent a potentially fatal
, anaphylactic reaction. This is a safety priority and precedes education, documentation,
and vital sign assessment.
Question 11: A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is to begin taking
alendronate for osteoporosis. Which of the following client statements indicates
understanding of the medication?
A. "I will take this medication with a full glass of water after breakfast."
B. "I will lie down for 30 minutes after taking the medication."
C. "I will take this medication on an empty stomach with a full glass of water."
D. "I can take this medication with my morning glass of orange juice."
CORRECT ANSWER: C. "I will take this medication on an empty stomach with a full
glass of water."
Rationale: Alendronate must be taken on an empty stomach with a full glass of water to
ensure absorption and prevent esophageal irritation. The client should remain upright
for 30 minutes after taking it. It should not be taken with juice or food.
Question 12: A nurse is assessing a client's wound and observes beefy red
granulation tissue, moderate serosanguineous drainage, and a small area of
purulent drainage. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Document the findings as normal wound healing.
B. Apply a dry sterile dressing.
C. Obtain a wound culture.
D. Irrigate the wound with hydrogen peroxide.
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Obtain a wound culture.
Rationale: The presence of purulent drainage indicates infection. The nurse should
obtain a wound culture to identify the causative organism and guide antibiotic therapy.
Granulation tissue is a sign of healing, but purulent drainage is not normal and requires
intervention.
Question 13: A nurse is conducting a mental status exam on a client who has
Alzheimer's disease. Which of the following findings is an early manifestation of
this disorder?
A. Loss of remote memory
B. Inability to recognize familiar objects
C. Misplacing items and forgetting recent events
D. Inability to perform activities of daily living
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Misplacing items and forgetting recent events
Rationale: Early manifestations of Alzheimer's disease include forgetfulness,
misplacing items, and difficulty with recent memory. Remote memory loss, agnosia
(inability to recognize objects), and loss of ADLs occur in later stages.
Question 14: A nurse is caring for a client on a medical-surgical unit who has a
history of falls. Which of the following nursing interventions is a primary prevention
strategy?
A. Placing a bed alarm on the client's bed.
B. Applying a vest restraint per provider's order.
190+ Questions and Answers | ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor Study
Guide, Practice Exam, Comprehensive Review, Exam Prep Test Bank,
Medical-Surgical Nursing, Pharmacology, Maternal-Newborn Nursing,
Pediatrics, Mental Health Nursing, Leadership and Management, NCLEX
Readiness, Detailed Rationales and Complete Revision Material
Question 1: A nurse is assessing a client who is 24 hours post-operative following
an abdominal hysterectomy. Which of the following findings is the priority for the
nurse to report to the provider?
A. Serosanguineous drainage on the dressing
B. Pain rated as a 5 on a 0-10 scale
C. Urinary output of 25 mL/hr
D. Audible bowel sounds in all four quadrants
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Urinary output of 25 mL/hr
Rationale: A urinary output of less than 30 mL/hr indicates inadequate renal perfusion
and is a sign of potential hypovolemia or acute kidney injury. This is a priority finding that
requires immediate reporting to the provider. Serosanguineous drainage and moderate
pain are expected findings, and bowel sounds are a positive sign of returning
gastrointestinal function.
Question 2: A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with a new
prescription for warfarin. Which of the following dietary statements by the client
indicates a need for further teaching?
A. "I will limit my intake of green leafy vegetables."
B. "I can continue to eat my usual amount of cranberry sauce."
C. "I will avoid drinking grapefruit juice."
D. "I should maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K-rich foods."
CORRECT ANSWER: B. "I can continue to eat my usual amount of cranberry sauce."
Rationale: Cranberry juice and products can increase the risk of bleeding by
potentiating the effects of warfarin. Clients should avoid or significantly limit cranberry
products. The other statements are correct: maintaining a consistent intake of vitamin K
is crucial for therapeutic effect, and limiting green leafy vegetables (which are high in
vitamin K) is standard teaching.
Question 3: A nurse is caring for a client with pneumonia who has a prescription for
oxygen at 4 L/min via nasal cannula. Which of the following assessment findings
indicates the therapy is effective?
A. Respiratory rate of 26/min
B. Oxygen saturation of 92%
C. Heart rate of 110/min
D. Use of accessory muscles
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Oxygen saturation of 92%
Rationale: A target oxygen saturation for a client with pneumonia is typically 88-92% for
those at risk for hypercapnia, but generally >92% for others. An SpO2 of 92% indicates
,adequate oxygenation. Tachypnea, tachycardia, and accessory muscle use are signs of
respiratory distress and indicate ineffective therapy.
Question 4: A nurse is preparing to administer 1,000 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride IV
over 8 hours to a client. The drop factor is 15 gtt/mL. What is the drip rate in
gtt/min?
A. 31 gtt/min
B. 125 gtt/min
C. 21 gtt/min
D. 85 gtt/min
CORRECT ANSWER: A. 31 gtt/min
Rationale: Total volume is 1000 mL. Time in minutes is 8 hours × 60 = 480 minutes. The
formula is (Volume/Time) × Drop factor = (1000/480) × 15 = 2.08 × 15 = 31.2. The correct
drip rate is 31 gtt/min.
Question 5: A nurse is assessing a newborn who is 12 hours old. Which of the
following findings should be reported to the provider?
A. Acrocyanosis of the hands and feet
B. Axillary temperature of 36.5°C (97.7°F)
C. A respiratory rate of 68/min with nasal flaring
D. Passing a dark, sticky stool
CORRECT ANSWER: C. A respiratory rate of 68/min with nasal flaring
Rationale: A respiratory rate greater than 60/min with nasal flaring is a sign of respiratory
distress and should be reported. Acrocyanosis is normal in the first 24 hours, an axillary
temperature of 36.5°C is within normal range, and passing meconium (dark, sticky
stool) is expected.
Question 6: A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new colostomy. Which of
the following interventions should the nurse include to promote skin integrity?
A. Apply a skin barrier powder to the peristomal area daily.
B. Clean the peristomal skin with an alcohol-based cleanser.
C. Change the ostomy appliance only when it is leaking.
D. Measure the stoma size and cut the appliance to fit snugly around it.
CORRECT ANSWER: D. Measure the stoma size and cut the appliance to fit snugly
around it.
Rationale: The appliance opening should be cut to fit snugly around the stoma (no more
than 1/8 inch larger) to prevent effluent from contacting the skin. Skin barrier powder is
used for moist, denuded skin, not daily. Alcohol-based cleansers are drying and
damaging to the skin. Appliances should be changed regularly (every 3-7 days) or when
leaking, not just when leaking.
Question 7: A client who is pregnant is at 36 weeks of gestation and reports dizzy
and lightheaded when lying flat on her back. The nurse should identify this as an
indication of which of the following?
A. Supine hypotension syndrome
B. Preeclampsia
,C. Anemia
D. Hyperemesis gravidarum
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Supine hypotension syndrome
Rationale: Supine hypotension syndrome occurs when the gravid uterus compresses
the vena cava, reducing venous return and cardiac output, causing dizziness and
lightheadedness. This is a normal physiological response to late pregnancy and is
relieved by turning to the left side. Preeclampsia is characterized by hypertension and
proteinuria, anemia by fatigue and pallor, and hyperemesis by severe vomiting.
Question 8: A nurse is caring for a client with a nasogastric tube connected to low
intermittent suction. Which of the following assessment findings indicates a
complication?
A. pH of gastric aspirate is 4
B. Gastric output of 100 mL in 4 hours
C. Reports of a dry mouth
D. Abdominal distension with nausea
CORRECT ANSWER: D. Abdominal distension with nausea
Rationale: Abdominal distension and nausea indicate a malfunction of the NG tube
(e.g., clogged tube or improper placement), which is a complication. A pH of 4 is
expected for gastric contents. Output of 100 mL in 4 hours and a dry mouth are
expected findings.
Question 9: A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has end-
stage renal disease. Which of the following findings is consistent with this
condition?
A. BUN 15 mg/dL
B. Creatinine 0.8 mg/dL
C. Potassium 5.8 mEq/L
D. Hemoglobin 16 g/dL
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Potassium 5.8 mEq/L
Rationale: End-stage renal disease results in the kidneys' inability to excrete potassium,
leading to hyperkalemia (normal is 3.5-5.0 mEq/L). BUN and creatinine would be
elevated, not low. Anemia (low hemoglobin) is common due to decreased
erythropoietin production.
Question 10: A nurse is administering the first dose of an antibiotic to a client.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Educate the client about potential adverse effects.
B. Document the administration in the electronic health record.
C. Check the client's allergy history.
D. Assess the client's vital signs.
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Check the client's allergy history.
Rationale: The priority action before administering any medication, especially an
antibiotic, is to verify the client's allergy status to prevent a potentially fatal
, anaphylactic reaction. This is a safety priority and precedes education, documentation,
and vital sign assessment.
Question 11: A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is to begin taking
alendronate for osteoporosis. Which of the following client statements indicates
understanding of the medication?
A. "I will take this medication with a full glass of water after breakfast."
B. "I will lie down for 30 minutes after taking the medication."
C. "I will take this medication on an empty stomach with a full glass of water."
D. "I can take this medication with my morning glass of orange juice."
CORRECT ANSWER: C. "I will take this medication on an empty stomach with a full
glass of water."
Rationale: Alendronate must be taken on an empty stomach with a full glass of water to
ensure absorption and prevent esophageal irritation. The client should remain upright
for 30 minutes after taking it. It should not be taken with juice or food.
Question 12: A nurse is assessing a client's wound and observes beefy red
granulation tissue, moderate serosanguineous drainage, and a small area of
purulent drainage. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Document the findings as normal wound healing.
B. Apply a dry sterile dressing.
C. Obtain a wound culture.
D. Irrigate the wound with hydrogen peroxide.
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Obtain a wound culture.
Rationale: The presence of purulent drainage indicates infection. The nurse should
obtain a wound culture to identify the causative organism and guide antibiotic therapy.
Granulation tissue is a sign of healing, but purulent drainage is not normal and requires
intervention.
Question 13: A nurse is conducting a mental status exam on a client who has
Alzheimer's disease. Which of the following findings is an early manifestation of
this disorder?
A. Loss of remote memory
B. Inability to recognize familiar objects
C. Misplacing items and forgetting recent events
D. Inability to perform activities of daily living
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Misplacing items and forgetting recent events
Rationale: Early manifestations of Alzheimer's disease include forgetfulness,
misplacing items, and difficulty with recent memory. Remote memory loss, agnosia
(inability to recognize objects), and loss of ADLs occur in later stages.
Question 14: A nurse is caring for a client on a medical-surgical unit who has a
history of falls. Which of the following nursing interventions is a primary prevention
strategy?
A. Placing a bed alarm on the client's bed.
B. Applying a vest restraint per provider's order.
