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NUR 6011/NUR6011 Final Exam V3 | Advance Pharmacology Q&A with Rationale | William Paterson University

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NUR 6011/NUR6011 Final Exam V3 | Advance Pharmacology Q&A with Rationale | William Paterson University

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NUR 6011/NUR6011 Final Exam V3 |
Advance Pharmacology Q&A with
Rationale | William Paterson University
1. A patient is prescribed Lisinopril for hypertension. Which electrolyte abnormality should

the nurse practitioner monitor most closely?

A. Hypokalemia


B. Hyperkalemia


C. Hyponatremia


D. Hypocalcemia


Answer: B


Rationale: ACE inhibitors like Lisinopril can cause hyperkalemia by inhibiting aldosterone

secretion, which leads to potassium retention. This is particularly concerning in patients

with renal impairment or those taking potassium-sparing diuretics. Monitoring serum

potassium levels is essential to prevent cardiac arrhythmias associated with high

potassium.


2. When prescribing Warfarin, which laboratory value is used to monitor the therapeutic

effect and adjust the dosage?

A. aPTT


B. INR

,C. Platelet count


D. Serum creatinine


Answer: B


Rationale: The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is the standard tool for monitoring

the anticoagulant effect of Warfarin. Maintaining the INR within a specific target range,

usually 2.0 to 3.0, ensures efficacy while minimizing bleeding risks. Frequent monitoring is

required due to the narrow therapeutic index and numerous drug-food interactions.


3. A patient with a history of asthma is diagnosed with hypertension. Which class of beta-

blockers is generally preferred in this population?

A. Non-selective beta-blockers


B. Beta-blockers with ISA


C. Cardioselective beta-blockers


D. Alpha-beta blockers


Answer: C


Rationale: Cardioselective beta-blockers, such as Metoprolol or Atenolol, preferentially

block Beta-1 receptors in the heart rather than Beta-2 receptors in the lungs. This

selectivity reduces the risk of inducing bronchospasm in patients with reactive airway

diseases like asthma. However, selectivity is dose-dependent and can be lost at higher

concentrations.

, 4. What is the primary mechanism of action of Metformin in the treatment of Type 2

Diabetes?

A. Stimulating insulin secretion from the pancreas


B. Increasing glucose excretion via the kidneys


C. Increasing dietary glucose absorption


D. Reducing hepatic glucose production


Answer: D


Rationale: Metformin primarily works by decreasing gluconeogenesis in the liver and

improving insulin sensitivity in peripheral tissues. Unlike sulfonylureas, it does not

stimulate insulin release, which significantly reduces the risk of hypoglycemia. It is

considered first-line therapy for most patients with Type 2 Diabetes unless contraindicated

by renal failure.


5. Which of the following is a classic sign of Digoxin toxicity that a patient should be educated

to report?

A. Peripheral edema


B. Yellow-green halos around lights


C. Increased appetite


D. Tinnitus


Answer: B

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Subido en
29 de junio de 2026
Número de páginas
30
Escrito en
2025/2026
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