WGU D027 OA EXAM ADVANCED
PATHOPHARMACOLOGICAL FOUNDATIONS EXAM
WITH ACTUAL CORRECT QUESTIONS AND
VERIFIED DETAILED ANSWERS| CURRENTLY
TESTING VERSION | ALREADY GRADED
A+|EXPERT VERIFIED FOR GUARANTEED PASS
2026/2027
A 56-year-old diabetic patient has not taken his insulin in 4 days due to him" feeling well
without it". He is admitted to the ED with an elevated blood sugar. What electrolyte
should be assessed FIRST?
Calcium
Sodium
Potassium
Chloride
Potassium
Insulin facilitates the intracellular transport of potassium, phosphate, and
magnesium. Without insulin, potassium does not get transported to the
intracellular environment and the serum potassium will rise.
A 46-year-old women is considering having another child. The healthcare providers are
explaining to the woman that children born to women late in life have an increase rate in
having children with which condition.
Kawasaki's disease
Down syndrome
Klinefelter syndrome
Turner syndrome
Down syndrome
Down syndrome risk increases with Maternal age.
A patient with several risk factors is concerned about developing type 2 diabetes. The
healthcare professional advises the patient to lose weight, explaining that obesity is an
1|Page
,important risk factor for type 2 diabetes mellitus because it causes what?
Reduced insulin production by the pancreas
Increased resistance to insulin in the cells
Obstructed outflow of insulin from the pancreas
Stimulation of glucose production by the liver
Increased resistance to insulin in the cells
When evaluating a patient for hypertensive target organ damage, the APRN looks for
evidence of:
Lipid abnormality
Insulin resistance
Left ventricular hypertrophy
Clotting disorders
Left ventricular hypertrophy
On ultrasound a patient had 4-chamber dilation with an ejection fraction of 15% and a
pleural effusion on chest x-ray. Elevated liver function tests, hypokalemia, and
hypomagnesema are seen on lab results. Blood pressure is 115/60 and heart rate is 110
bpm with regular rate and rhythm, respiratory rate 30 bpm and O2 saturation is 88% on
room air. Initial therapy should include all of the following except:
Diuretic
ACE Inhibitor
Digoxin
Beta Blocker
Digoxin
A patient in the emergency department is suspected of having a myocardial infarction
(MI). The initial cardiac troponin 1 level was negative. What action by the healthcare
professional is best?
Administer thrombolytic therapy.
Discharge the patient.
Schedule repeat troponin within a few hours.
Prepare the patient for cardiac catheterization.
Schedule repeat troponin within a few hours.
Several cardiac biomarkers exist including the most specific, cardiac troponin 1
2|Page
,(cTnI), cTnI begins to rise within 2 to 4 hours after cardiac injury, so if the initial
result is normal, the test should be repeated within 6 to 9 hours and again at 12 to
24 hours. It is not known yet if the patient has had an MI so treatment with
thrombolytic therapy and/or catheterization would be premature. The patient
should not be discharged since the professional suspected an MI.
Which patient would the healthcare professional assess for elevated levels of
antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion?
Being treated for small cell carcinoma of the stomach
Taking high dose acetaminophen (Tylenol) for arthritis
Had a hip replacement operation 14 days ago
Has long-standing kidney disease from diabetes
Being treated for small cell carcinoma of the stomach
A common cause of elevated levels of ADH secretion is ectopically produced ADH
by tumors, such as small cell carcinoma of the duodenum, stomach, and
pancreas; cancers of the bladder, prostate, and endometrium; lymphomas; and
sarcomas. High doses of antiinflammatory medications are a risk factor, but
acetaminophen is not an antiinflammatory medication. Surgery within the last 5 to
7 leads to increased ADH secretion. Kidney disease does not lead to excess levels
of ADH.
A post-operative patient with gallbladder surgery has an epidural infusion of
Astramorph. The patients respiratory rate starts to decline to 9 breaths/minute. Which
medication should the healthcare provider anticipate administering to this patient?
Protamine sulfate
Mucomyst
Naloxone
Solu-Medrol
Naloxone
Naloxone is a narcotic antagonist that can reverse the effect of both adverse and
therapeutic use of opioid narcotic analgesics.
A patient is brought to the Emergency Department with a gunshot wound to the chest.
The healthcare professional assesses an abnormality involving a pleural rupture that
acts as a one-way valve, permitting air to enter on inspiration but preventing its escape
by closing during expiration. What action by the healthcare professional is the priority?
3|Page
, Draw arterial blood gasses.
Assist with a chest tube insertion.
Give the patient low-flow oxygen.
Assess for clubbing of fingernails.
Assist with a chest tube insertion.
Feedback:In a tension pneumothorax, the site of pleural rupture acts as a one-way
valve, permitting air to enter on inspiration but preventing its escape by closing up
during expiration. As more and more air enters the pleural space, air pressure in the
pneumothorax begins to exceed barometric pressure. Air pressure in the pleural
space pushes against the already recoiled lung, causing compression atelectasis,
and against the mediastinum, compressing and displacing the heart, great vessels,
and trachea. This is an emergency condition requiring chest tube insertion or
immediate needle decompression. Arterial blood gas results will not change the
treatment plan. This patient may need oxygen if definitive treatment is delayed, but
it would need to be high-flow oxygen. Clubbing of fingernails occurs in chronic
hypoxemic conditions. The professional should assist with immediate needle
decompression or chest tube insertion.
A 2-year-old pediatric patient with limited medical history available arrives to an urgent
care with excessive irritability and crying. X-rays were obtained and noted to have
fractures of the metatarsals of the foot and left tibia. On exam, the nurse notes that the
patient seems to have a blue tint to both sclera, and she didn't seem to react normally
when the nurse was talking to her. Which diagnosis is most likely in this case?
Osteogenesis imperfecta
Calcium deficiency
Non-accidental trauma (physical abuse)
Osteomyelitis
Osteogenesis imperfecta
Osteogenesis imperfecta (OI) is a genetic abnormality with predominant autosomal
dominant inheritance. OI affects bone integrity through a variety of collagen
defects. Depending on the type of OI, various manifestations may be concomitant
such as appearance of blue sclera, hearing deficits, short stature and/or dental
malformations.
A patient who has chronic kidney disease has hemoglobin of 7.2 mg/dL. What treatment
does the healthcare professional prepare the patient for?
Intrinsic factor
4|Page
PATHOPHARMACOLOGICAL FOUNDATIONS EXAM
WITH ACTUAL CORRECT QUESTIONS AND
VERIFIED DETAILED ANSWERS| CURRENTLY
TESTING VERSION | ALREADY GRADED
A+|EXPERT VERIFIED FOR GUARANTEED PASS
2026/2027
A 56-year-old diabetic patient has not taken his insulin in 4 days due to him" feeling well
without it". He is admitted to the ED with an elevated blood sugar. What electrolyte
should be assessed FIRST?
Calcium
Sodium
Potassium
Chloride
Potassium
Insulin facilitates the intracellular transport of potassium, phosphate, and
magnesium. Without insulin, potassium does not get transported to the
intracellular environment and the serum potassium will rise.
A 46-year-old women is considering having another child. The healthcare providers are
explaining to the woman that children born to women late in life have an increase rate in
having children with which condition.
Kawasaki's disease
Down syndrome
Klinefelter syndrome
Turner syndrome
Down syndrome
Down syndrome risk increases with Maternal age.
A patient with several risk factors is concerned about developing type 2 diabetes. The
healthcare professional advises the patient to lose weight, explaining that obesity is an
1|Page
,important risk factor for type 2 diabetes mellitus because it causes what?
Reduced insulin production by the pancreas
Increased resistance to insulin in the cells
Obstructed outflow of insulin from the pancreas
Stimulation of glucose production by the liver
Increased resistance to insulin in the cells
When evaluating a patient for hypertensive target organ damage, the APRN looks for
evidence of:
Lipid abnormality
Insulin resistance
Left ventricular hypertrophy
Clotting disorders
Left ventricular hypertrophy
On ultrasound a patient had 4-chamber dilation with an ejection fraction of 15% and a
pleural effusion on chest x-ray. Elevated liver function tests, hypokalemia, and
hypomagnesema are seen on lab results. Blood pressure is 115/60 and heart rate is 110
bpm with regular rate and rhythm, respiratory rate 30 bpm and O2 saturation is 88% on
room air. Initial therapy should include all of the following except:
Diuretic
ACE Inhibitor
Digoxin
Beta Blocker
Digoxin
A patient in the emergency department is suspected of having a myocardial infarction
(MI). The initial cardiac troponin 1 level was negative. What action by the healthcare
professional is best?
Administer thrombolytic therapy.
Discharge the patient.
Schedule repeat troponin within a few hours.
Prepare the patient for cardiac catheterization.
Schedule repeat troponin within a few hours.
Several cardiac biomarkers exist including the most specific, cardiac troponin 1
2|Page
,(cTnI), cTnI begins to rise within 2 to 4 hours after cardiac injury, so if the initial
result is normal, the test should be repeated within 6 to 9 hours and again at 12 to
24 hours. It is not known yet if the patient has had an MI so treatment with
thrombolytic therapy and/or catheterization would be premature. The patient
should not be discharged since the professional suspected an MI.
Which patient would the healthcare professional assess for elevated levels of
antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion?
Being treated for small cell carcinoma of the stomach
Taking high dose acetaminophen (Tylenol) for arthritis
Had a hip replacement operation 14 days ago
Has long-standing kidney disease from diabetes
Being treated for small cell carcinoma of the stomach
A common cause of elevated levels of ADH secretion is ectopically produced ADH
by tumors, such as small cell carcinoma of the duodenum, stomach, and
pancreas; cancers of the bladder, prostate, and endometrium; lymphomas; and
sarcomas. High doses of antiinflammatory medications are a risk factor, but
acetaminophen is not an antiinflammatory medication. Surgery within the last 5 to
7 leads to increased ADH secretion. Kidney disease does not lead to excess levels
of ADH.
A post-operative patient with gallbladder surgery has an epidural infusion of
Astramorph. The patients respiratory rate starts to decline to 9 breaths/minute. Which
medication should the healthcare provider anticipate administering to this patient?
Protamine sulfate
Mucomyst
Naloxone
Solu-Medrol
Naloxone
Naloxone is a narcotic antagonist that can reverse the effect of both adverse and
therapeutic use of opioid narcotic analgesics.
A patient is brought to the Emergency Department with a gunshot wound to the chest.
The healthcare professional assesses an abnormality involving a pleural rupture that
acts as a one-way valve, permitting air to enter on inspiration but preventing its escape
by closing during expiration. What action by the healthcare professional is the priority?
3|Page
, Draw arterial blood gasses.
Assist with a chest tube insertion.
Give the patient low-flow oxygen.
Assess for clubbing of fingernails.
Assist with a chest tube insertion.
Feedback:In a tension pneumothorax, the site of pleural rupture acts as a one-way
valve, permitting air to enter on inspiration but preventing its escape by closing up
during expiration. As more and more air enters the pleural space, air pressure in the
pneumothorax begins to exceed barometric pressure. Air pressure in the pleural
space pushes against the already recoiled lung, causing compression atelectasis,
and against the mediastinum, compressing and displacing the heart, great vessels,
and trachea. This is an emergency condition requiring chest tube insertion or
immediate needle decompression. Arterial blood gas results will not change the
treatment plan. This patient may need oxygen if definitive treatment is delayed, but
it would need to be high-flow oxygen. Clubbing of fingernails occurs in chronic
hypoxemic conditions. The professional should assist with immediate needle
decompression or chest tube insertion.
A 2-year-old pediatric patient with limited medical history available arrives to an urgent
care with excessive irritability and crying. X-rays were obtained and noted to have
fractures of the metatarsals of the foot and left tibia. On exam, the nurse notes that the
patient seems to have a blue tint to both sclera, and she didn't seem to react normally
when the nurse was talking to her. Which diagnosis is most likely in this case?
Osteogenesis imperfecta
Calcium deficiency
Non-accidental trauma (physical abuse)
Osteomyelitis
Osteogenesis imperfecta
Osteogenesis imperfecta (OI) is a genetic abnormality with predominant autosomal
dominant inheritance. OI affects bone integrity through a variety of collagen
defects. Depending on the type of OI, various manifestations may be concomitant
such as appearance of blue sclera, hearing deficits, short stature and/or dental
malformations.
A patient who has chronic kidney disease has hemoglobin of 7.2 mg/dL. What treatment
does the healthcare professional prepare the patient for?
Intrinsic factor
4|Page
