D115 master set-Advanced Pathophysiology for the Advanced Practice Nurse
questions verified correct answers
Which type of risk is referred to as the ratio of the disease rate among the entire
population to the disease rate in an unexposed population?- correct answer>>>Relative
risk is a ratio of probability, not an actual occurrence of disease.
What are the empirical risks for most multifactorial diseases based on?- correct
answer>>>Many factors from lifestyle to genetics affect multifactorial diseases.
Observation and evaluation of each case individually provides the most thorough and
accurate assessment.
What refers to the silenced gene of a gene pair.- correct answer>>>The imprinted gene
is the silent gene of a gene pair.
What is the primary reason that some older adults have impaired inflammation and
wound healing?- correct answer>>>The underlying chronic illness exists.
A generalized inflammatory response seen in chronic illness depletes the body's
reserves to fight against illness.
Which cells are the body's primary defense against parasite invasion?- correct
answer>>>Eosinophils are the body's primary defense against parasites.
What Phagocytes bacteria?- correct answer>>>Macrophages work by eating or
phagocytosing bacteria.
What is the first response to a foreign pathogen?- correct answer>>>Helper T cells
Which characteristic is the most important determinant of immunogenicity when
considering the antigen?- correct answer>>>Immunogenicity is primarily based on the
ability to recognize something foreign.
How are erythrocytes destroyed when mismatched blood is administered, causing an
ABO incompatibility?- correct answer>>>The complement pathway is activated in
response to blood incompatibility.
What is the hypersensitivity reaction that causes atopic dermatitis?- correct
answer>>>An immediate (type I) hypersensitivity reaction causes atopic dermatitis.
Which four infections are considered fungal infections?- correct answer>>>Infection with
a fungus is called mycosis and includes dermatophytes (e.g., tineas, which refers to
several skin mycoses, including ringworm and athlete's foot) and yeasts, which include
candida and aspergillus.
,When is the earliest after sexual transmission of HIV that lab results can detect
infection?- correct answer>>>Lab testing can detect HIV RNA 4 to 10 days after sexual
transmission, whereas HIV antibody testing may take 23 to 90 days to result in a
positive test. Repeat testing may be needed to rule out a false negative test due to
testing too soon after exposure, especially if a high likelihood of exposure is suspected.
What is a characteristic of exotoxins?- correct answer>>>Exotoxins are released during
bacterial growth.
Which dietary lifestyle choice has been associated with a decreased risk for developing
colon cancer?- correct answer>>>The results of decreased fat consumption have been
widely studied and have demonstrated a decreased risk of developing colon cancer.
Which cancer is an individual who has worked with asbestos for over 40 years most
likely to develop?- correct answer>>>Asbestos exposure results in an increased risk of
lung and lung lining cancer.
Which statement is true regarding ultraviolet (UV) light?
The degree of damage is not affected by the light's wavelength.- correct answer>>>UV
light causes basal cell carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma when the UVB rays hit
DNA strands, causing thymine base pairs that are side by side to pair together,
becoming thymine dimers. These thymine dimers lead to cell death or cancer.
Which cancer does exercise have a convincing impact on reducing?- correct
answer>>>Exercise-induced myokines cause apoptosis of colon cancer cells.
Low healthcare literacy is recognized as a major risk factor in blood pressure control
and has been shown to have adverse effects on health outcomes.
true or false- correct answer>>>TRUE
By providing patient education at the appropriate literacy level, improved health
outcomes may result.
One of the goals of the National Action Plan to Improve Health Literacy is to incorporate
research and evidence-based plans of treatment from childhood through university-level
education in a manner consistent with an individual's literacy level.
True or false- correct answer>>>True
Ensuring the individual can understand all elements of a treatment plan is crucial for
understanding and compliance.
What is a red flag for low healthcare literacy?- correct answer>>>Low literacy often
leads to perceived noncompliance to medical instructions, including medication
instructions. Ensuring the patient fully understands all instructions is critical for
understanding.
Amniocentesis is recommended for pregnant women with certain health histories.
,Which health history would result in an amniocentesis recommendation?- correct
answer>>>Those who have a family history of genetic disorders
Studies have identified several genes that play a role in the prevention of obesity.
What do these genes influence?- correct answer>>>Regulation of appetite-Research
has shown that genetic mutations may cause alterations in the regulation of appetite.
Which concept is data reporting that sickle cell disease affects approximately 1 in 600
black Americans an example of?- correct answer>>>Prevalence tells us how often
disease is seen in a population, which includes all people with the disease at a given
time, at any stage in the disease progression.
What describes a chromosomal defect caused by Prader-Willi syndrome?- correct
answer>>>Prader-Willi syndrome is caused by a disorder of a portion of chromosome
15. Normally, a portion of this chromosome is inherited from both parents. With Prader-
Willi syndrome, the chromosome inherited from the father is problematic.
Which action is a purpose of the inflammatory process?- correct answer>>>Prevent
infection of the injured tissue
The inflammatory response is a defense mechanism designed to remove damaged
tissue so the body can heal.
Which leukocytes are elevated in response to acute inflammatory reactions when
considering white blood cell differentials?
Monocytes
Neutrophils
Basophils
Eosinophils- correct answer>>>Neutrophils are one of the first responders to acute
inflammation, and an increase in neutrophils demonstrates an acute inflammatory
response.
Which type of genetic disease affects males more frequently than females?- correct
answer>>>Sex-Linked recessive. Since males only have one X and one Y, if the
affected chromosome has the illness, it will be expressed.
In which two conditions are chromosomal abnormalities the leading known cause?-
correct answer>>>Intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage. Chromosome
abnormalities are the leading known cause of intellectual disability and fetal
miscarriage.
What are three examples of prenatal diagnostic studies?- correct answer>>>Chorionic
villus sampling (CVS), amniocentesis, and preimplantation genetic testing (PGT) are
examples of prenatal diagnostic studies and are performed in vitro. CVS is a form of
genetic testing that provides genetic information found in utero and is usually performed
between weeks 11 and 14 of pregnancy. An amniocentesis is a form of genetic testing
, that evaluates amniotic fluid and is usually performed during the second trimester,
between weeks 15 and 20 of pregnancy. PGT is performed on the embryo prior to
implantation.
Which genetic disorder is characterized by the presence of a zygote having one
chromosome with a normal complement of genes and one chromosome with a missing
gene?- correct answer>>>Cri du chat syndrome (translated as "cry of the cat") is
caused by a DNA deletion. This term describes the cry often heard from a baby affected
by the syndrome. Cri du chat syndrome can present as a microcephalic, low birth-
weight baby with a piercing cry.
How can an X-linked recessive disease skip generations?- correct answer>>>The
disease can be transmitted through female carriers.
Since females have two copies of the X chromosome, the mother may provide an
unaffected X to a daughter or son. Furthermore, a daughter may not show signs of the
disease because she has the other X (the only X the father can give to a female) to
cancel it out.
Which type of immunity is produced by an individual after either natural exposure to the
antigen or after immunization against the antigen?- correct answer>>>Active-acquired
immunity or naturally acquired active immunity occurs when an individual is exposed to
a live pathogen and develops the disease or becomes immune as a result of a vaccine.
Which characteristics do atopic individuals have that make them genetically
predisposed to develop allergies?- correct answer>>>The greater quantities of IgE in
atopic individuals make them genetically predisposed to develop allergies. IgE mediates
the immune response to allergens; therefore, the more IgE one has, the stronger the
response can be to an allergen. Think of it as having more soldiers in the army to fight
the war.
A healthcare professional is conducting community education on vaccinations.
Which statement about vaccines should the professional include in the presentation?-
correct answer>>>Vaccines require booster injections to maintain life-long protection.
Most vaccines require a booster to increase immunity. The initial effects of a vaccine
may diminish over time, and boosters improve protection against disease.
Which term describes an agent's ability to produce disease?- correct
answer>>>Pathogenicity refers to an organism's ability to create or produce disease.
What are signs and symptoms of Cri du Chrat Syndrome?- correct answer>>>DNA
deletion of chromosome 5. low birth weight, mental retardation, microencephaly, and cat
like cry
What are the 3 layers of human defense?- correct answer>>>Physical, Mechanical,
biochemical barriers
questions verified correct answers
Which type of risk is referred to as the ratio of the disease rate among the entire
population to the disease rate in an unexposed population?- correct answer>>>Relative
risk is a ratio of probability, not an actual occurrence of disease.
What are the empirical risks for most multifactorial diseases based on?- correct
answer>>>Many factors from lifestyle to genetics affect multifactorial diseases.
Observation and evaluation of each case individually provides the most thorough and
accurate assessment.
What refers to the silenced gene of a gene pair.- correct answer>>>The imprinted gene
is the silent gene of a gene pair.
What is the primary reason that some older adults have impaired inflammation and
wound healing?- correct answer>>>The underlying chronic illness exists.
A generalized inflammatory response seen in chronic illness depletes the body's
reserves to fight against illness.
Which cells are the body's primary defense against parasite invasion?- correct
answer>>>Eosinophils are the body's primary defense against parasites.
What Phagocytes bacteria?- correct answer>>>Macrophages work by eating or
phagocytosing bacteria.
What is the first response to a foreign pathogen?- correct answer>>>Helper T cells
Which characteristic is the most important determinant of immunogenicity when
considering the antigen?- correct answer>>>Immunogenicity is primarily based on the
ability to recognize something foreign.
How are erythrocytes destroyed when mismatched blood is administered, causing an
ABO incompatibility?- correct answer>>>The complement pathway is activated in
response to blood incompatibility.
What is the hypersensitivity reaction that causes atopic dermatitis?- correct
answer>>>An immediate (type I) hypersensitivity reaction causes atopic dermatitis.
Which four infections are considered fungal infections?- correct answer>>>Infection with
a fungus is called mycosis and includes dermatophytes (e.g., tineas, which refers to
several skin mycoses, including ringworm and athlete's foot) and yeasts, which include
candida and aspergillus.
,When is the earliest after sexual transmission of HIV that lab results can detect
infection?- correct answer>>>Lab testing can detect HIV RNA 4 to 10 days after sexual
transmission, whereas HIV antibody testing may take 23 to 90 days to result in a
positive test. Repeat testing may be needed to rule out a false negative test due to
testing too soon after exposure, especially if a high likelihood of exposure is suspected.
What is a characteristic of exotoxins?- correct answer>>>Exotoxins are released during
bacterial growth.
Which dietary lifestyle choice has been associated with a decreased risk for developing
colon cancer?- correct answer>>>The results of decreased fat consumption have been
widely studied and have demonstrated a decreased risk of developing colon cancer.
Which cancer is an individual who has worked with asbestos for over 40 years most
likely to develop?- correct answer>>>Asbestos exposure results in an increased risk of
lung and lung lining cancer.
Which statement is true regarding ultraviolet (UV) light?
The degree of damage is not affected by the light's wavelength.- correct answer>>>UV
light causes basal cell carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma when the UVB rays hit
DNA strands, causing thymine base pairs that are side by side to pair together,
becoming thymine dimers. These thymine dimers lead to cell death or cancer.
Which cancer does exercise have a convincing impact on reducing?- correct
answer>>>Exercise-induced myokines cause apoptosis of colon cancer cells.
Low healthcare literacy is recognized as a major risk factor in blood pressure control
and has been shown to have adverse effects on health outcomes.
true or false- correct answer>>>TRUE
By providing patient education at the appropriate literacy level, improved health
outcomes may result.
One of the goals of the National Action Plan to Improve Health Literacy is to incorporate
research and evidence-based plans of treatment from childhood through university-level
education in a manner consistent with an individual's literacy level.
True or false- correct answer>>>True
Ensuring the individual can understand all elements of a treatment plan is crucial for
understanding and compliance.
What is a red flag for low healthcare literacy?- correct answer>>>Low literacy often
leads to perceived noncompliance to medical instructions, including medication
instructions. Ensuring the patient fully understands all instructions is critical for
understanding.
Amniocentesis is recommended for pregnant women with certain health histories.
,Which health history would result in an amniocentesis recommendation?- correct
answer>>>Those who have a family history of genetic disorders
Studies have identified several genes that play a role in the prevention of obesity.
What do these genes influence?- correct answer>>>Regulation of appetite-Research
has shown that genetic mutations may cause alterations in the regulation of appetite.
Which concept is data reporting that sickle cell disease affects approximately 1 in 600
black Americans an example of?- correct answer>>>Prevalence tells us how often
disease is seen in a population, which includes all people with the disease at a given
time, at any stage in the disease progression.
What describes a chromosomal defect caused by Prader-Willi syndrome?- correct
answer>>>Prader-Willi syndrome is caused by a disorder of a portion of chromosome
15. Normally, a portion of this chromosome is inherited from both parents. With Prader-
Willi syndrome, the chromosome inherited from the father is problematic.
Which action is a purpose of the inflammatory process?- correct answer>>>Prevent
infection of the injured tissue
The inflammatory response is a defense mechanism designed to remove damaged
tissue so the body can heal.
Which leukocytes are elevated in response to acute inflammatory reactions when
considering white blood cell differentials?
Monocytes
Neutrophils
Basophils
Eosinophils- correct answer>>>Neutrophils are one of the first responders to acute
inflammation, and an increase in neutrophils demonstrates an acute inflammatory
response.
Which type of genetic disease affects males more frequently than females?- correct
answer>>>Sex-Linked recessive. Since males only have one X and one Y, if the
affected chromosome has the illness, it will be expressed.
In which two conditions are chromosomal abnormalities the leading known cause?-
correct answer>>>Intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage. Chromosome
abnormalities are the leading known cause of intellectual disability and fetal
miscarriage.
What are three examples of prenatal diagnostic studies?- correct answer>>>Chorionic
villus sampling (CVS), amniocentesis, and preimplantation genetic testing (PGT) are
examples of prenatal diagnostic studies and are performed in vitro. CVS is a form of
genetic testing that provides genetic information found in utero and is usually performed
between weeks 11 and 14 of pregnancy. An amniocentesis is a form of genetic testing
, that evaluates amniotic fluid and is usually performed during the second trimester,
between weeks 15 and 20 of pregnancy. PGT is performed on the embryo prior to
implantation.
Which genetic disorder is characterized by the presence of a zygote having one
chromosome with a normal complement of genes and one chromosome with a missing
gene?- correct answer>>>Cri du chat syndrome (translated as "cry of the cat") is
caused by a DNA deletion. This term describes the cry often heard from a baby affected
by the syndrome. Cri du chat syndrome can present as a microcephalic, low birth-
weight baby with a piercing cry.
How can an X-linked recessive disease skip generations?- correct answer>>>The
disease can be transmitted through female carriers.
Since females have two copies of the X chromosome, the mother may provide an
unaffected X to a daughter or son. Furthermore, a daughter may not show signs of the
disease because she has the other X (the only X the father can give to a female) to
cancel it out.
Which type of immunity is produced by an individual after either natural exposure to the
antigen or after immunization against the antigen?- correct answer>>>Active-acquired
immunity or naturally acquired active immunity occurs when an individual is exposed to
a live pathogen and develops the disease or becomes immune as a result of a vaccine.
Which characteristics do atopic individuals have that make them genetically
predisposed to develop allergies?- correct answer>>>The greater quantities of IgE in
atopic individuals make them genetically predisposed to develop allergies. IgE mediates
the immune response to allergens; therefore, the more IgE one has, the stronger the
response can be to an allergen. Think of it as having more soldiers in the army to fight
the war.
A healthcare professional is conducting community education on vaccinations.
Which statement about vaccines should the professional include in the presentation?-
correct answer>>>Vaccines require booster injections to maintain life-long protection.
Most vaccines require a booster to increase immunity. The initial effects of a vaccine
may diminish over time, and boosters improve protection against disease.
Which term describes an agent's ability to produce disease?- correct
answer>>>Pathogenicity refers to an organism's ability to create or produce disease.
What are signs and symptoms of Cri du Chrat Syndrome?- correct answer>>>DNA
deletion of chromosome 5. low birth weight, mental retardation, microencephaly, and cat
like cry
What are the 3 layers of human defense?- correct answer>>>Physical, Mechanical,
biochemical barriers
