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WGU D236 Pathophysiology - OA & PA Exam LATEST ACTUAL EXAM 300 QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT SOLUTIONS AND RATIONALES JUST RELEASED THIS YEAR.pdf — Comprehensive pathophysiology study resource designed to support preparation for the WGU D236 Objective

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WGU D236 Pathophysiology - OA & PA Exam LATEST ACTUAL EXAM 300 QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT SOLUTIONS AND RATIONALES JUST RELEASED THIS YEAR.pdf — Comprehensive pathophysiology study resource designed to support preparation for the WGU D236 Objective Assessment (OA) and Performance Assessment (PA). Features practice questions with detailed answer explanations and rationales covering cellular adaptation, inflammation, immune responses, fluid and electrolyte balance, genetic disorders, cardiovascular, respiratory, renal, endocrine, gastrointestinal, neurological, musculoskeletal, and hematologic pathophysiology. Ideal for reinforcing foundational concepts, strengthening clinical reasoning, and improving confidence for course assessments.

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WGU D236 Pathophysiology - OA & PA Exam
LATEST 2026-2027 ACTUAL EXAM 300 QUESTIONS
WITH CORRECT SOLUTIONS AND RATIONALES JUST
RELEASED THIS YEAR
1. A 55-year-old male with a 30-pack-year smoking history presents with a chronic cough,


hemoptysis, and weight loss. A chest X-ray reveals a hilar mass. What is the most likely


underlying cellular change?


A) Hyperplasia


B) Metaplasia


C) Dysplasia


D) Anaplasia


Answer: D) Anaplasia refers to poorly differentiated cells with loss of normal architecture,


characteristic of malignant transformation in lung cancer.



2. A 45-year-old female with rheumatoid arthritis is on long-term corticosteroid therapy. She


presents with a sudden onset of severe back pain after sneezing. What is the most likely


diagnosis?


A) Muscle strain


B) Vertebral compression fracture

, Page 2 of 138


C) Renal calculi


D) Degenerative disc disease


Answer: B) Chronic corticosteroid use causes osteoporosis, increasing the risk of vertebral


compression fractures from minor trauma.



3. A 62-year-old male with a history of hypertension presents with a sudden, severe "tearing"


chest pain that radiates to his back. His blood pressure is 180/110 mmHg in the right arm and


110/70 in the left. What is the most likely diagnosis?


A) Myocardial infarction


B) Pulmonary embolism


C) Aortic dissection


D) Pericarditis


Answer: C) Aortic dissection presents with acute tearing chest pain and a pulse/blood pressure


differential between arms.



4. A 28-year-old female presents with fatigue, joint pain, and a malar rash that worsens with


sun exposure. She also has oral ulcers. Which autoantibody is most specific for this condition?


A) Anti-dsDNA


B) Rheumatoid factor

, Page 3 of 138


C) Antinuclear antibody


D) Anti-Sm


Answer: A) Anti-dsDNA is highly specific for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), though ANA is


more sensitive.



5. A 3-year-old child presents with fever, cough, and a "barking" cough that is worse at night.


The child is sitting upright and drooling. What is the most appropriate immediate action?


A) Nebulized epinephrine


B) Oral dexamethasone


C) Prepare for intubation


D) Chest X-ray


Answer: C) Drooling and tripod positioning suggest epiglottitis, a medical emergency requiring


airway support; do not manipulate the airway.



6. A 58-year-old diabetic patient presents with a non-healing ulcer on the plantar surface of


the foot. The wound is painless, well-circumscribed, and surrounded by callus. What is the


primary underlying cause?


A) Peripheral artery disease


B) Venous insufficiency

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C) Diabetic neuropathy


D) Osteomyelitis


Answer: C) Loss of protective sensation due to diabetic neuropathy leads to painless plantar


ulcers from repeated trauma.



7. A 70-year-old female with a history of heart failure presents with worsening dyspnea,


orthopnea, and peripheral edema. She has gained 5 lbs in 3 days. Which medication is most


appropriate initially?


A) Digoxin


B) Furosemide


C) Carvedilol


D) Lisinopril


Answer: B) Loop diuretics like furosemide are first-line for acute volume overload in heart failure


exacerbation.



8. A 32-year-old G1P0 at 28 weeks gestation presents with headache, visual changes, and


epigastric pain. BP is 165/105 mmHg with 3+ proteinuria. What is the priority treatment?


A) Labetalol


B) Magnesium sulfate

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Subido en
28 de junio de 2026
Número de páginas
138
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2025/2026
Tipo
Examen
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