ARMRIT MRI Registry Review and Practice Exam Guide
2025/2026 - U.S. Certification Prep 2025/2026 Complete
100-Question Practice Exam with Answers and Explanations -
140 Questions and Answers Already Graded A+ Premium Exam
Tested And Verified
Subject Area MRI Physics, Safety, Instrumentation, and Clinical Protocols
Description This practice exam covers the core knowledge domains for the ARMRIT MRI
Registry, including MRI physics, safety, pulse sequences, coil selection, contrast
agents, and quality control. Questions are designed to test deep conceptual
understanding and clinical reasoning at the level expected for US certification.
Expected Grade A+
Total Questions 140
Duration 3 hours
Learning Outcomes 1. Analyze the relationship between gradient performance and image quality
2. Apply safety principles for implantable devices in the MR environment
3. Differentiate advanced pulse sequences based on tissue contrast
4. Evaluate the impact of k-space trajectories on acquisition time and artifacts
Accreditation Meets ARMRIT examination standards for MRI technologists in the United
States.
Page 1
,1. In a spin-echo sequence, the 180° refocusing pulse is applied at time after the 90°
pulse. If the T2 relaxation time of a tissue is 80 ms and the TE is 120 ms, what is the
approximate percentage of the initial transverse magnetization remaining at the
echo peak, assuming no T2* effects?
A. 12.5%
B. 22.3%
C. 5.6%
D. 31.5%
Answer: B. 22.3%
Transverse magnetization decays as exp(-TE/T2). With TE=120 ms and T2=80 ms,
exp(-120/80)=exp(-1.5)0.2231, or 22.3%. Option A (12.5%) corresponds to exp(-2),
option C (5.6%) to exp(-2.5), and option D (31.5%) to exp(-1.2).
2. A patient with a programmable ventriculoperitoneal shunt presents for a brain
MRI. The shunt valve is programmable via an external magnetic field. Which of the
following actions is most appropriate to ensure patient safety and device
functionality?
A. Perform the MRI at 3 T to reduce the number of adjustments needed
B. Set the valve to a fixed pressure before the scan and reprogram after
C. Place a ferromagnetic shield over the valve site
D. Use a spin-echo sequence instead of gradient-echo to minimize RF exposure
Answer: B. Set the valve to a fixed pressure before the scan and reprogram after
Programmable shunts can be inadvertently adjusted by the static magnetic field. The
standard protocol is to set the valve to a known fixed pressure (often the current setting
recorded) prior to the scan, then check and reprogram if needed after the exam. Higher
field strength (3 T) increases risk, not safety. Ferromagnetic shields are not practical
and may not prevent torque. Sequence choice does not eliminate the static field effect.
Page 2
,3. A gradient echo sequence with a flip angle of 10° and TR=20 ms is used to image
the abdomen. To maximize T1 contrast while maintaining acceptable SNR, which of
the following parameter adjustments is most effective?
A. Increase flip angle to 60° and use a longer TR
B. Decrease flip angle to 5° and maintain TR
C. Increase flip angle to 90° and use a much shorter TR
D. Keep flip angle at 10° and increase bandwidth
Answer: A. Increase flip angle to 60° and use a longer TR
In gradient-echo imaging, T1 contrast is maximized by using a larger flip angle (e.g.,
60-90°) and a TR that is on the order of the T1 of tissues. A 10° flip angle with short TR
yields low T1 weighting (more proton density or T2* weighting). Increasing flip angle to
60° and using a longer TR allows more T1 recovery between excitations, enhancing T1
contrast. Option B reduces T1 weighting; option C (90°, short TR) would saturate
tissues; option D does not improve T1 contrast.
4. During an MRI of the lumbar spine, the technologist observes significant pulsation
artifact from the abdominal aorta propagating in the phase-encoding direction.
Which of the following techniques would most effectively reduce this artifact without
increasing scan time?
A. Apply a saturation band superior to the region of interest
B. Swap phase and frequency encoding directions
C. Increase the number of signal averages (NEX)
D. Decrease the receiver bandwidth
Answer: B. Swap phase and frequency encoding directions
Pulsation artifact propagates along the phase-encoding direction. By swapping phase
and frequency encoding axes, the artifact is redirected perpendicular to the primary
anatomy of interest (e.g., away from the spinal canal), reducing its impact on diagnostic
quality. This does not increase scan time. Saturation bands may reduce flow signal but
not necessarily pulsation artifact. Increasing NEX reduces noise but prolongs scan time.
Decreasing bandwidth increases chemical shift artifact but does not address pulsation.
Page 3
, 5. In the context of parallel imaging, the g-factor describes noise amplification due to
coil geometry and acceleration factor. Which of the following statements about the
g-factor is correct?
A. The g-factor is always less than or equal to 1
B. The g-factor increases as the acceleration factor decreases
C. The g-factor is independent of the coil array geometry
D. The g-factor can be reduced by using a larger number of coil elements with good spatial
separation
Answer: D. The g-factor can be reduced by using a larger number of coil elements
with good spatial separation
The g-factor is a measure of noise enhancement in parallel imaging; it is always 1.
Using more coil elements that are well separated improves the conditioning of the
reconstruction matrix, reducing g-factor noise. Option A is false because g1. Option B is
false: g increases with higher acceleration factors. Option C is false: g depends heavily
on coil geometry.
6. A radiologist requests a non-contrast MRA of the renal arteries. Which pulse
sequence technique is most appropriate for visualizing the renal arteries without
exogenous contrast?
A. Time-of-flight (TOF) MRA with superior saturation
B. Phase-contrast MRA with velocity encoding perpendicular to the renal arteries
C. 3D T1-weighted gradient echo with fat suppression
D. Steady-state free precession (SSFP) with inversion recovery
Answer: A. Time-of-flight (TOF) MRA with superior saturation
Time-of-flight MRA relies on inflow enhancement of fresh spins into the imaging slab.
For renal arteries, a 2D or 3D TOF sequence with saturation bands placed superiorly
(to suppress venous inflow from the IVC) provides good arterial visualization without
contrast. Phase-contrast MRA (B) requires knowledge of flow direction and velocity
encoding, which can be challenging. T1-weighted GRE (C) without contrast shows poor
vessel contrast. SSFP (D) is typically used for cardiac imaging, not renal MRA.
Page 4
2025/2026 - U.S. Certification Prep 2025/2026 Complete
100-Question Practice Exam with Answers and Explanations -
140 Questions and Answers Already Graded A+ Premium Exam
Tested And Verified
Subject Area MRI Physics, Safety, Instrumentation, and Clinical Protocols
Description This practice exam covers the core knowledge domains for the ARMRIT MRI
Registry, including MRI physics, safety, pulse sequences, coil selection, contrast
agents, and quality control. Questions are designed to test deep conceptual
understanding and clinical reasoning at the level expected for US certification.
Expected Grade A+
Total Questions 140
Duration 3 hours
Learning Outcomes 1. Analyze the relationship between gradient performance and image quality
2. Apply safety principles for implantable devices in the MR environment
3. Differentiate advanced pulse sequences based on tissue contrast
4. Evaluate the impact of k-space trajectories on acquisition time and artifacts
Accreditation Meets ARMRIT examination standards for MRI technologists in the United
States.
Page 1
,1. In a spin-echo sequence, the 180° refocusing pulse is applied at time after the 90°
pulse. If the T2 relaxation time of a tissue is 80 ms and the TE is 120 ms, what is the
approximate percentage of the initial transverse magnetization remaining at the
echo peak, assuming no T2* effects?
A. 12.5%
B. 22.3%
C. 5.6%
D. 31.5%
Answer: B. 22.3%
Transverse magnetization decays as exp(-TE/T2). With TE=120 ms and T2=80 ms,
exp(-120/80)=exp(-1.5)0.2231, or 22.3%. Option A (12.5%) corresponds to exp(-2),
option C (5.6%) to exp(-2.5), and option D (31.5%) to exp(-1.2).
2. A patient with a programmable ventriculoperitoneal shunt presents for a brain
MRI. The shunt valve is programmable via an external magnetic field. Which of the
following actions is most appropriate to ensure patient safety and device
functionality?
A. Perform the MRI at 3 T to reduce the number of adjustments needed
B. Set the valve to a fixed pressure before the scan and reprogram after
C. Place a ferromagnetic shield over the valve site
D. Use a spin-echo sequence instead of gradient-echo to minimize RF exposure
Answer: B. Set the valve to a fixed pressure before the scan and reprogram after
Programmable shunts can be inadvertently adjusted by the static magnetic field. The
standard protocol is to set the valve to a known fixed pressure (often the current setting
recorded) prior to the scan, then check and reprogram if needed after the exam. Higher
field strength (3 T) increases risk, not safety. Ferromagnetic shields are not practical
and may not prevent torque. Sequence choice does not eliminate the static field effect.
Page 2
,3. A gradient echo sequence with a flip angle of 10° and TR=20 ms is used to image
the abdomen. To maximize T1 contrast while maintaining acceptable SNR, which of
the following parameter adjustments is most effective?
A. Increase flip angle to 60° and use a longer TR
B. Decrease flip angle to 5° and maintain TR
C. Increase flip angle to 90° and use a much shorter TR
D. Keep flip angle at 10° and increase bandwidth
Answer: A. Increase flip angle to 60° and use a longer TR
In gradient-echo imaging, T1 contrast is maximized by using a larger flip angle (e.g.,
60-90°) and a TR that is on the order of the T1 of tissues. A 10° flip angle with short TR
yields low T1 weighting (more proton density or T2* weighting). Increasing flip angle to
60° and using a longer TR allows more T1 recovery between excitations, enhancing T1
contrast. Option B reduces T1 weighting; option C (90°, short TR) would saturate
tissues; option D does not improve T1 contrast.
4. During an MRI of the lumbar spine, the technologist observes significant pulsation
artifact from the abdominal aorta propagating in the phase-encoding direction.
Which of the following techniques would most effectively reduce this artifact without
increasing scan time?
A. Apply a saturation band superior to the region of interest
B. Swap phase and frequency encoding directions
C. Increase the number of signal averages (NEX)
D. Decrease the receiver bandwidth
Answer: B. Swap phase and frequency encoding directions
Pulsation artifact propagates along the phase-encoding direction. By swapping phase
and frequency encoding axes, the artifact is redirected perpendicular to the primary
anatomy of interest (e.g., away from the spinal canal), reducing its impact on diagnostic
quality. This does not increase scan time. Saturation bands may reduce flow signal but
not necessarily pulsation artifact. Increasing NEX reduces noise but prolongs scan time.
Decreasing bandwidth increases chemical shift artifact but does not address pulsation.
Page 3
, 5. In the context of parallel imaging, the g-factor describes noise amplification due to
coil geometry and acceleration factor. Which of the following statements about the
g-factor is correct?
A. The g-factor is always less than or equal to 1
B. The g-factor increases as the acceleration factor decreases
C. The g-factor is independent of the coil array geometry
D. The g-factor can be reduced by using a larger number of coil elements with good spatial
separation
Answer: D. The g-factor can be reduced by using a larger number of coil elements
with good spatial separation
The g-factor is a measure of noise enhancement in parallel imaging; it is always 1.
Using more coil elements that are well separated improves the conditioning of the
reconstruction matrix, reducing g-factor noise. Option A is false because g1. Option B is
false: g increases with higher acceleration factors. Option C is false: g depends heavily
on coil geometry.
6. A radiologist requests a non-contrast MRA of the renal arteries. Which pulse
sequence technique is most appropriate for visualizing the renal arteries without
exogenous contrast?
A. Time-of-flight (TOF) MRA with superior saturation
B. Phase-contrast MRA with velocity encoding perpendicular to the renal arteries
C. 3D T1-weighted gradient echo with fat suppression
D. Steady-state free precession (SSFP) with inversion recovery
Answer: A. Time-of-flight (TOF) MRA with superior saturation
Time-of-flight MRA relies on inflow enhancement of fresh spins into the imaging slab.
For renal arteries, a 2D or 3D TOF sequence with saturation bands placed superiorly
(to suppress venous inflow from the IVC) provides good arterial visualization without
contrast. Phase-contrast MRA (B) requires knowledge of flow direction and velocity
encoding, which can be challenging. T1-weighted GRE (C) without contrast shows poor
vessel contrast. SSFP (D) is typically used for cardiac imaging, not renal MRA.
Page 4
