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NR607 Exam 3 Actual Exam Style V1 | NR 607 Diagnosis & Management in Psychiatric-Mental Health III Practicum | Chamberlain

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NR607 Exam 3 Actual Exam Style V1 | NR 607 Diagnosis & Management in Psychiatric-Mental Health III Practicum | Chamberlain

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NR607 Exam 3 Actual Exam Style V1 | NR
607 Diagnosis & Management in
Psychiatric-Mental Health III Practicum |
Chamberlain
1. A 65-year-old patient presents with acute onset of confusion, visual hallucinations, and

fluctuating levels of consciousness. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Delirium


B. Alzheimer’s Disease


C. Schizophrenia


D. Vascular Dementia


Answer: A


Rationale: Delirium is characterized by an acute onset and fluctuating course of symptoms,

particularly impairment in attention and consciousness. Unlike dementia, which is

progressive and stable, delirium is often reversible once the underlying medical cause is

treated. The presence of visual hallucinations in an older adult without a history of

psychosis is highly suggestive of a medical etiology.


2. A patient taking Clozapine presents with a fever, sore throat, and mouth sores. What is the

priority intervention for the PMHNP?

A. Increase the dose of Clozapine

,B. Prescribe an antibiotic for a suspected cold


C. Order an immediate CBC with differential


D. Refer to a dentist for mouth sores


Answer: C


Rationale: Clozapine carries a black box warning for agranulocytosis, which is a severe

decrease in white blood cell count. Symptoms like fever and sore throat can be early signs

of infection due to a lack of neutrophils. An immediate Complete Blood Count (CBC) with

differential is required to check the Absolute Neutrophil Count (ANC) per REMS protocols.


3. Which psychotherapy model is specifically designed for the treatment of Borderline

Personality Disorder and focuses on mindfulness and distress tolerance?

A. Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT)


B. Interpersonal Therapy (IPT)


C. Dialectical Behavior Therapy (DBT)


D. Psychodynamic Therapy


Answer: C


Rationale: Dialectical Behavior Therapy (DBT) was developed by Marsha Linehan

specifically to treat Borderline Personality Disorder. It combines cognitive-behavioral

techniques with concepts from Zen Buddhism, such as mindfulness. The four modules of

,DBT include mindfulness, distress tolerance, emotion regulation, and interpersonal

effectiveness.


4. A patient with Bipolar I Disorder is experiencing a severe manic episode and is currently

taking Lithium. The serum Lithium level is 0.7 mEq/L. What is the most appropriate action?

A. Increase the dose to reach the acute treatment range of 1.0-1.5 mEq/L


B. Decrease the dose to avoid toxicity


C. Maintain the current dose as it is within range


D. Discontinue Lithium and start an SSRI


Answer: A


Rationale: For acute mania, the therapeutic range for Lithium is typically 1.0 to 1.5 mEq/L,

while maintenance levels are usually 0.6 to 1.2 mEq/L. A level of 0.7 mEq/L may be

insufficient to control severe acute manic symptoms. The clinician should consider

increasing the dose while monitoring for signs of toxicity and checking levels frequently.


5. An adolescent presents with persistent irritability and frequent outbursts that are out of

proportion to the situation for at least 12 months. What is the most likely DSM-5 diagnosis?

A. Oppositional Defiant Disorder


B. Major Depressive Disorder


C. Conduct Disorder


D. Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder (DMDD)

, Answer: D


Rationale: Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder (DMDD) was introduced in the DSM-5

to address concerns about the overdiagnosis of Bipolar Disorder in children. It requires a

pattern of severe, recurrent temper outbursts and a persistently irritable mood between

outbursts for at least one year. The diagnosis should not be made for the first time before

age 6 or after age 18.


6. Which of the following symptoms is a hallmark of Serotonin Syndrome and helps

distinguish it from Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS)?

A. Muscle rigidity


B. Hyperreflexia and myoclonus


C. Hyperthermia


D. Autonomic instability


Answer: B


Rationale: Serotonin Syndrome is often characterized by hyperreflexia and myoclonus

(twitching), particularly in the lower extremities. In contrast, Neuroleptic Malignant

Syndrome (NMS) typically presents with ‘lead-pipe’ muscle rigidity and bradyreflexia. Both

conditions involve hyperthermia and autonomic instability, making physical exam findings

like reflex response crucial for differentiation.

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Subido en
28 de junio de 2026
Número de páginas
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Escrito en
2025/2026
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