ATI Capstone Maternal-Newborn Assessment Actual Exam
2026/2027 – Comprehensive Nursing Review with Detailed
Rationales | 100% Verified | Pass Guaranteed – A+ Graded
Section 1: Antepartum Nursing & Prenatal Care (15 Questions)
Q1: A pregnant client's last menstrual period (LMP) began on January 10, 2027. Using
Naegele's Rule, what is the estimated date of delivery (EDD)?
A. October 3, 2027
B. October 17, 2027
C. October 17, 2027 [CORRECT]
D. November 7, 2027
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Naegele's Rule calculates EDD by adding 7 days to the first day of the LMP,
subtracting 3 months, and adding 1 year; January 10 + 7 days = January 17, minus 3
months = October 17, plus 1 year = October 17, 2027—this provides an estimated
delivery date within a 2-week margin of error.
Q2: A pregnant client at 16 weeks gestation has a positive quad screen showing low
alpha-fetoprotein (AFP), low estriol, elevated hCG, and elevated inhibin A. Which
condition should the nurse anticipate the provider will discuss?
A. Neural tube defect
B. Trisomy 21 (Down syndrome)
,C. Trisomy 21 (Down syndrome) [CORRECT]
D. Trisomy 18 (Edwards syndrome)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The quad screen pattern of low AFP, low estriol, elevated hCG, and elevated
inhibin A is characteristic of Trisomy 21 (Down syndrome); elevated AFP suggests
neural tube defects, while low hCG and low AFP suggest Trisomy 18—this screening
requires genetic counseling and diagnostic testing (amniocentesis or CVS) for
confirmation.
Q3: A pregnant client at 28 weeks gestation is Rh-negative and has a negative antibody
screen. The father of the baby is Rh-positive. When should the nurse administer Rho(D)
immune globulin (RhoGAM)?
A. Only within 72 hours after delivery if the baby is Rh-positive
B. At 28 weeks gestation and again within 72 hours after delivery if the baby is
Rh-positive
C. At 28 weeks gestation and again within 72 hours after delivery if the baby is
Rh-positive [CORRECT]
D. Only if the mother experiences vaginal bleeding during pregnancy
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: RhoGAM is administered to Rh-negative mothers at approximately 28 weeks
gestation (to prevent sensitization during the third trimester) and again within 72 hours
after delivery if the baby is Rh-positive; it is also given after any invasive procedure,
,amniocentesis, or significant bleeding during pregnancy—this prevents Rh sensitization
and hemolytic disease of the newborn in subsequent pregnancies.
Q4: A pregnant client at 32 weeks gestation reports decreased fetal movement over the
past 24 hours. Which nursing intervention should be prioritized?
A. Reassure the client that decreased movement is normal at this gestational age
B. Instruct the client to perform fetal kick counts and notify the provider if fewer than 10
movements are felt in 2 hours
C. Instruct the client to perform fetal kick counts and notify the provider if fewer than 10
movements are felt in 2 hours [CORRECT]
D. Schedule a routine prenatal appointment for next week
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Decreased fetal movement is a danger sign requiring immediate assessment;
the nurse should instruct the client to perform fetal kick counts (10 movements in 2
hours is normal) and notify the provider immediately if movements are decreased—this
may indicate fetal compromise, placental insufficiency, or umbilical cord issues
requiring non-stress testing or biophysical profile.
Q5: A pregnant client at 24 weeks gestation is undergoing a non-stress test (NST). The
fetal heart rate baseline is 140 bpm with moderate variability, and there are two
accelerations of 15 bpm lasting 15 seconds each within 20 minutes. How should the
nurse interpret these findings?
A. Non-reactive NST requiring immediate delivery
, B. Reactive NST indicating fetal well-being
C. Reactive NST indicating fetal well-being [CORRECT]
D. Inconclusive NST requiring contraction stress test
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A reactive NST is defined as two or more accelerations of at least 15 bpm
lasting at least 15 seconds within a 20-minute window, with moderate variability and
normal baseline (110-160 bpm); this indicates adequate fetal oxygenation and
autonomic nervous system function—non-reactive NSTs require further evaluation with
BPP or CST.
Q6: A pregnant client at 38 weeks gestation undergoes a biophysical profile (BPP). The
results show: fetal breathing movements present, fetal movement present, fetal tone
present, amniotic fluid volume adequate, and reactive NST. What is the BPP score, and
what does it indicate?
A. 6/10; equivocal requiring repeat testing
B. 10/10; normal indicating fetal well-being
C. 10/10; normal indicating fetal well-being [CORRECT]
D. 4/10; abnormal requiring immediate delivery
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The BPP assigns 2 points for each of five components (breathing, movement,
tone, amniotic fluid, reactive NST); a score of 10/10 is normal, 8/10 is equivocal
(depending on which components are abnormal), and ≤6/10 is abnormal requiring
2026/2027 – Comprehensive Nursing Review with Detailed
Rationales | 100% Verified | Pass Guaranteed – A+ Graded
Section 1: Antepartum Nursing & Prenatal Care (15 Questions)
Q1: A pregnant client's last menstrual period (LMP) began on January 10, 2027. Using
Naegele's Rule, what is the estimated date of delivery (EDD)?
A. October 3, 2027
B. October 17, 2027
C. October 17, 2027 [CORRECT]
D. November 7, 2027
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Naegele's Rule calculates EDD by adding 7 days to the first day of the LMP,
subtracting 3 months, and adding 1 year; January 10 + 7 days = January 17, minus 3
months = October 17, plus 1 year = October 17, 2027—this provides an estimated
delivery date within a 2-week margin of error.
Q2: A pregnant client at 16 weeks gestation has a positive quad screen showing low
alpha-fetoprotein (AFP), low estriol, elevated hCG, and elevated inhibin A. Which
condition should the nurse anticipate the provider will discuss?
A. Neural tube defect
B. Trisomy 21 (Down syndrome)
,C. Trisomy 21 (Down syndrome) [CORRECT]
D. Trisomy 18 (Edwards syndrome)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The quad screen pattern of low AFP, low estriol, elevated hCG, and elevated
inhibin A is characteristic of Trisomy 21 (Down syndrome); elevated AFP suggests
neural tube defects, while low hCG and low AFP suggest Trisomy 18—this screening
requires genetic counseling and diagnostic testing (amniocentesis or CVS) for
confirmation.
Q3: A pregnant client at 28 weeks gestation is Rh-negative and has a negative antibody
screen. The father of the baby is Rh-positive. When should the nurse administer Rho(D)
immune globulin (RhoGAM)?
A. Only within 72 hours after delivery if the baby is Rh-positive
B. At 28 weeks gestation and again within 72 hours after delivery if the baby is
Rh-positive
C. At 28 weeks gestation and again within 72 hours after delivery if the baby is
Rh-positive [CORRECT]
D. Only if the mother experiences vaginal bleeding during pregnancy
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: RhoGAM is administered to Rh-negative mothers at approximately 28 weeks
gestation (to prevent sensitization during the third trimester) and again within 72 hours
after delivery if the baby is Rh-positive; it is also given after any invasive procedure,
,amniocentesis, or significant bleeding during pregnancy—this prevents Rh sensitization
and hemolytic disease of the newborn in subsequent pregnancies.
Q4: A pregnant client at 32 weeks gestation reports decreased fetal movement over the
past 24 hours. Which nursing intervention should be prioritized?
A. Reassure the client that decreased movement is normal at this gestational age
B. Instruct the client to perform fetal kick counts and notify the provider if fewer than 10
movements are felt in 2 hours
C. Instruct the client to perform fetal kick counts and notify the provider if fewer than 10
movements are felt in 2 hours [CORRECT]
D. Schedule a routine prenatal appointment for next week
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Decreased fetal movement is a danger sign requiring immediate assessment;
the nurse should instruct the client to perform fetal kick counts (10 movements in 2
hours is normal) and notify the provider immediately if movements are decreased—this
may indicate fetal compromise, placental insufficiency, or umbilical cord issues
requiring non-stress testing or biophysical profile.
Q5: A pregnant client at 24 weeks gestation is undergoing a non-stress test (NST). The
fetal heart rate baseline is 140 bpm with moderate variability, and there are two
accelerations of 15 bpm lasting 15 seconds each within 20 minutes. How should the
nurse interpret these findings?
A. Non-reactive NST requiring immediate delivery
, B. Reactive NST indicating fetal well-being
C. Reactive NST indicating fetal well-being [CORRECT]
D. Inconclusive NST requiring contraction stress test
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A reactive NST is defined as two or more accelerations of at least 15 bpm
lasting at least 15 seconds within a 20-minute window, with moderate variability and
normal baseline (110-160 bpm); this indicates adequate fetal oxygenation and
autonomic nervous system function—non-reactive NSTs require further evaluation with
BPP or CST.
Q6: A pregnant client at 38 weeks gestation undergoes a biophysical profile (BPP). The
results show: fetal breathing movements present, fetal movement present, fetal tone
present, amniotic fluid volume adequate, and reactive NST. What is the BPP score, and
what does it indicate?
A. 6/10; equivocal requiring repeat testing
B. 10/10; normal indicating fetal well-being
C. 10/10; normal indicating fetal well-being [CORRECT]
D. 4/10; abnormal requiring immediate delivery
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The BPP assigns 2 points for each of five components (breathing, movement,
tone, amniotic fluid, reactive NST); a score of 10/10 is normal, 8/10 is equivocal
(depending on which components are abnormal), and ≤6/10 is abnormal requiring
