ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor and NGN Clinical Judgment
Practice Exam Questions and Correct Answers – Updated 2026
(Graded A+) instant download pdf
Subject: ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor 2026 (NGN Preparation)
Subtopic: Management of Care and Clinical Judgment
Question 1:
A nurse is caring for four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?
A) A client with chronic heart failure reporting mild fatigue
B) A client scheduled for discharge in 2 hours
C) A client with diabetes who is diaphoretic and confused with a blood glucose of 52 mg/dL
D) A client requesting assistance with hygiene
Correct Answer: C - A client with diabetes who is diaphoretic and confused with a blood
glucose of 52 mg/dL
Rationale: Hypoglycemia is an immediate threat to neurologic function and can rapidly
progress to seizures or loss of consciousness. Using the ABCs and acute-versus-stable
prioritization framework, this client requires immediate intervention. The remaining clients
are stable and can safely wait.
Question 2:
A nurse receives report on four clients. Which client should be assigned to the most
experienced RN?
A) A client 24 hours postoperative with stable vital signs
B) A client admitted with suspected septic shock requiring vasopressors
C) A client preparing for discharge after pneumonia treatment
D) A client receiving routine wound care
Correct Answer: B - A client admitted with suspected septic shock requiring vasopressors
Rationale: Septic shock is a high-acuity condition requiring advanced assessment, critical
thinking, hemodynamic monitoring, and complex interventions. Stable postoperative and
discharge clients can be managed by less experienced staff.
Question 3:
,An NGN case study reveals a client with respiratory rate 32/min, oxygen saturation 88%, and
increasing restlessness. Which action should the nurse take first?
A) Notify the provider
B) Reassess in 30 minutes
C) Apply supplemental oxygen
D) Obtain discharge instructions
Correct Answer: C - Apply supplemental oxygen
Rationale: Airway and breathing take priority. Oxygen should be administered immediately
to improve oxygenation while further assessment and provider notification occur.
Question 4:
Which task can the nurse safely delegate to assistive personnel (AP)?
A) Evaluating pain after medication administration
B) Teaching incentive spirometer use
C) Measuring intake and output
D) Assessing a new pressure injury
Correct Answer: C - Measuring intake and output
Rationale: Intake and output measurement is a routine task that may be delegated.
Assessment, evaluation, and teaching remain the responsibility of the RN.
Question 5:
A nurse discovers a medication error has occurred. What is the nurse's priority action?
A) Document the incident report only
B) Assess the client for adverse effects
C) Notify the pharmacist first
D) Contact risk management
Correct Answer: B - Assess the client for adverse effects
Rationale: Client safety is always the first priority. Assessment determines whether
immediate interventions are needed before reporting and documentation occur.
Question 6:
A client refuses a prescribed treatment. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?
,A) Administer the treatment anyway
B) Explain potential consequences and respect the decision
C) Ask family members to force compliance
D) Discharge the client immediately
Correct Answer: B - Explain potential consequences and respect the decision
Rationale: Competent adults have the right to refuse treatment. Nurses provide education
and ensure informed decision-making while respecting autonomy.
Question 7:
Which laboratory result requires immediate follow-up?
A) Sodium 138 mEq/L
B) Potassium 2.8 mEq/L
C) Hemoglobin 13.5 g/dL
D) WBC 8,000/mm³
Correct Answer: B - Potassium 2.8 mEq/L
Rationale: Severe hypokalemia increases the risk of life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias
and requires prompt intervention.
Question 8:
A nurse is caring for a client receiving blood transfusion therapy. Which finding indicates a
possible transfusion reaction?
A) Temperature increase from 37.0°C to 38.4°C
B) Improved skin color
C) Reduced fatigue
D) Increased urine output
Correct Answer: A - Temperature increase from 37.0°C to 38.4°C
Rationale: Fever may indicate a transfusion reaction. The transfusion should be stopped
immediately and further assessment initiated.
Question 9:
A newly licensed nurse asks about informed consent. Which statement is correct?
, A) Nurses obtain surgical consent independently
B) The provider performing the procedure is responsible for obtaining informed consent
C) Family members always provide consent
D) Consent is unnecessary for invasive procedures
Correct Answer: B - The provider performing the procedure is responsible for obtaining
informed consent
Rationale: Providers explain risks, benefits, alternatives, and obtain consent. Nurses verify
the signature and witness the consent process.
Question 10:
Which client should the nurse identify as highest risk for falls?
A) A 22-year-old athlete recovering from minor surgery
B) A 45-year-old client with controlled hypertension
C) An 82-year-old client receiving opioid analgesics
D) A 35-year-old client with seasonal allergies
Correct Answer: C - An 82-year-old client receiving opioid analgesics
Rationale: Advanced age and opioid use significantly increase fall risk due to sedation,
dizziness, and impaired mobility.
Subtopic: Safety and Infection Control
Question 11:
A nurse enters a room of a client with pulmonary tuberculosis. Which PPE is required?
A) Surgical mask only
B) N95 respirator
C) Sterile gloves only
D) Face shield only
Correct Answer: B - N95 respirator
Rationale: Tuberculosis requires airborne precautions. An N95 respirator filters airborne
particles and protects healthcare personnel.
Question 12:
Practice Exam Questions and Correct Answers – Updated 2026
(Graded A+) instant download pdf
Subject: ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor 2026 (NGN Preparation)
Subtopic: Management of Care and Clinical Judgment
Question 1:
A nurse is caring for four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?
A) A client with chronic heart failure reporting mild fatigue
B) A client scheduled for discharge in 2 hours
C) A client with diabetes who is diaphoretic and confused with a blood glucose of 52 mg/dL
D) A client requesting assistance with hygiene
Correct Answer: C - A client with diabetes who is diaphoretic and confused with a blood
glucose of 52 mg/dL
Rationale: Hypoglycemia is an immediate threat to neurologic function and can rapidly
progress to seizures or loss of consciousness. Using the ABCs and acute-versus-stable
prioritization framework, this client requires immediate intervention. The remaining clients
are stable and can safely wait.
Question 2:
A nurse receives report on four clients. Which client should be assigned to the most
experienced RN?
A) A client 24 hours postoperative with stable vital signs
B) A client admitted with suspected septic shock requiring vasopressors
C) A client preparing for discharge after pneumonia treatment
D) A client receiving routine wound care
Correct Answer: B - A client admitted with suspected septic shock requiring vasopressors
Rationale: Septic shock is a high-acuity condition requiring advanced assessment, critical
thinking, hemodynamic monitoring, and complex interventions. Stable postoperative and
discharge clients can be managed by less experienced staff.
Question 3:
,An NGN case study reveals a client with respiratory rate 32/min, oxygen saturation 88%, and
increasing restlessness. Which action should the nurse take first?
A) Notify the provider
B) Reassess in 30 minutes
C) Apply supplemental oxygen
D) Obtain discharge instructions
Correct Answer: C - Apply supplemental oxygen
Rationale: Airway and breathing take priority. Oxygen should be administered immediately
to improve oxygenation while further assessment and provider notification occur.
Question 4:
Which task can the nurse safely delegate to assistive personnel (AP)?
A) Evaluating pain after medication administration
B) Teaching incentive spirometer use
C) Measuring intake and output
D) Assessing a new pressure injury
Correct Answer: C - Measuring intake and output
Rationale: Intake and output measurement is a routine task that may be delegated.
Assessment, evaluation, and teaching remain the responsibility of the RN.
Question 5:
A nurse discovers a medication error has occurred. What is the nurse's priority action?
A) Document the incident report only
B) Assess the client for adverse effects
C) Notify the pharmacist first
D) Contact risk management
Correct Answer: B - Assess the client for adverse effects
Rationale: Client safety is always the first priority. Assessment determines whether
immediate interventions are needed before reporting and documentation occur.
Question 6:
A client refuses a prescribed treatment. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?
,A) Administer the treatment anyway
B) Explain potential consequences and respect the decision
C) Ask family members to force compliance
D) Discharge the client immediately
Correct Answer: B - Explain potential consequences and respect the decision
Rationale: Competent adults have the right to refuse treatment. Nurses provide education
and ensure informed decision-making while respecting autonomy.
Question 7:
Which laboratory result requires immediate follow-up?
A) Sodium 138 mEq/L
B) Potassium 2.8 mEq/L
C) Hemoglobin 13.5 g/dL
D) WBC 8,000/mm³
Correct Answer: B - Potassium 2.8 mEq/L
Rationale: Severe hypokalemia increases the risk of life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias
and requires prompt intervention.
Question 8:
A nurse is caring for a client receiving blood transfusion therapy. Which finding indicates a
possible transfusion reaction?
A) Temperature increase from 37.0°C to 38.4°C
B) Improved skin color
C) Reduced fatigue
D) Increased urine output
Correct Answer: A - Temperature increase from 37.0°C to 38.4°C
Rationale: Fever may indicate a transfusion reaction. The transfusion should be stopped
immediately and further assessment initiated.
Question 9:
A newly licensed nurse asks about informed consent. Which statement is correct?
, A) Nurses obtain surgical consent independently
B) The provider performing the procedure is responsible for obtaining informed consent
C) Family members always provide consent
D) Consent is unnecessary for invasive procedures
Correct Answer: B - The provider performing the procedure is responsible for obtaining
informed consent
Rationale: Providers explain risks, benefits, alternatives, and obtain consent. Nurses verify
the signature and witness the consent process.
Question 10:
Which client should the nurse identify as highest risk for falls?
A) A 22-year-old athlete recovering from minor surgery
B) A 45-year-old client with controlled hypertension
C) An 82-year-old client receiving opioid analgesics
D) A 35-year-old client with seasonal allergies
Correct Answer: C - An 82-year-old client receiving opioid analgesics
Rationale: Advanced age and opioid use significantly increase fall risk due to sedation,
dizziness, and impaired mobility.
Subtopic: Safety and Infection Control
Question 11:
A nurse enters a room of a client with pulmonary tuberculosis. Which PPE is required?
A) Surgical mask only
B) N95 respirator
C) Sterile gloves only
D) Face shield only
Correct Answer: B - N95 respirator
Rationale: Tuberculosis requires airborne precautions. An N95 respirator filters airborne
particles and protects healthcare personnel.
Question 12:
