NCLEX QUESTIONS FOR FUNDAMENTALS
OF NURSING WITH RATIONALE 2026 |
COMPLETE PRACTICE GUIDE
| GRADED A+ | GUARANTEED SUCCESS
Updated 2026 Questions and Answers
100% Verified Exam Prep and Comprehensive
Rationales Included
,Which factor in the patient's past medical history dictates Answer:
that the nurse exercise caution when administering 1) Hepatitis B
acetaminophen (Tylenol)?
Rationale:
1) Hepatitis B Even in recommended doses, acetaminophen can cause severe hepatotoxicity in
2) Occasional alcohol use patients with liver disease, such as hepatitis B. Patients who consume alcohol
3) Allergy to aspirin regularly should also use acetaminophen cautiously. Those allergic to aspirin or
4) Gastric irritation with bleeding other nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) can use acetaminophen
safely. Acetaminophen rarely causes gastrointestinal (GI) problems; therefore, it
can be used for those with a history of gastric irritation and bleeding.
Which action should the nurse take before administering Answer:
morphine 4.0 mg intravenously to a patient complaining 3) Assess the patient's respiratory status.
of incisional pain?
Rationale:
1) Assess the patient's incision. Before administering an opioid analgesic, such as morphine, the nurse should
2) Clarify the order with the prescriber. assess the patient's respiratory status because opioid analgesics can cause
3) Assess the patient's respiratory status. respiratory depression. It is not necessary to clarify the order with the physician
4) Monitor the patient's heart rate. because morphine 4 mg IV is an appropriate dose. It is not necessary to monitor
the patient's heart rate.
Which action should the nurse take when preparing Answer:
patient-controlled analgesia for a postoperative patient? 2) Ask another nurse to double-check the setup before patient use.
1) Caution the patient to limit the number of times he Rationale:
presses the dosing button. As a safeguard to reduce the risk for dosing errors, the nurse should request
2) Ask another nurse to double-check the setup before another nurse to double-check the setup before patient use. The nurse should
patient use. reassure the patient that the pump has a lockout feature that prevents him from
3) Instruct the patient to administer a dose only when overdosing even if he continues to push the dose administration button. The nurse
experiencing pain. should also instruct the patient to administer a dose before potentially painful
4) Provide clear, simple instructions for dosing if the activities, such as walking. Patient-controlled analgesia is contraindicated for
patient is cognitively impaired. those who are cognitively impaired.
The nurse administers codeine sulfate 30 mg orally to a Answer:
patient who underwent craniotomy 3 days ago for a brain 4) In 60 minutes
tumor. How soon after administration should the nurse
reassess the patient's pain? Rationale:
Codeine administered by the oral route reaches peak concentration in 60
1) Immediately minutes; therefore, the nurse should reassess the patient's pain 60 minutes after
2) In 10 minutes administration. The nurse should reassess pain after 10 minutes when administering
3) In 15 minutes codeine by the intramuscular or subcutaneous routes. Drugs administered by the
4) In 60 minutes intravenous (IV) route are effective almost immediately; however, codeine is not
recommended for IV administration.
, Which nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug might be Answer:
administered to inhibit platelet aggregation in a patient at 3) Aspirin (Ecotrin)
risk for thrombophlebitis?
Rationale:
1) Ibuprofen (Motrin) Aspirin is a unique NSAID that inhibits platelet aggregation. Low-dose aspirin
2) Celecoxib (Celebrex) therapy is commonly administered to decrease the risk of thrombophlebitis,
3) Aspirin (Ecotrin) myocardial infarction, and stroke. Ibuprofen, celecoxib, and indomethacin are
4) Indomethacin (Indocin) NSAIDs, but they do not inhibit platelet aggregation.
A client who is receiving epidural analgesia complains of Answer:
nausea and loss of motor function in his legs. The nurse 3) Epidural catheter migration
obtains his blood pressure and notes a drop in his blood
pressure from the previous reading. Which complication Rationale:
is the patient most likely experiencing? The patient is exhibiting signs of epidural catheter migration, which include
nausea, a decrease in blood pressure, and loss of motor function without an
1) Infection at the catheter insertion site identifiable cause. Signs of infection at the catheter site include redness, swelling,
2) Side effect of the epidural analgesic and drainage. Loss of motor function is not a typical side effect associated with
3) Epidural catheter migration epidural analgesics. These are common signs of catheter migration, not spinal
4) Spinal cord damage cord damage.
Which of the following clients is experiencing an Answer:
abnormal change in vital signs? A client whose (select all 1) Blood pressure (BP) was 132/80 mm Hg sitting and is 120/60 mm Hg upon
that apply): standing
3) Heart rate was 76 before eating and is 60 after eating
1) Blood pressure (BP) was 132/80 mm Hg sitting and is
120/60 mm Hg upon standing Rationale:
2) Rectal temperature is 97.9°F in the morning and 99.2°F The BP change is abnormal; a BP change greater than 10 mm Hg may indicate
in the evening postural hypotension. The change in heart rate is abnormal; heart rate usually
3) Heart rate was 76 before eating and is 60 after eating increases slightly after eating rather than decreasing. The temperatures are within
4) Respiratory rate was 14 when standing and is 22 after normal range for the rectal route, and temperature increases throughout the day.
walking It is normal to have an increased respiratory rate after exercise.
The nurse assesses clients' breath sounds. Which one Answer:
requires immediate medical attention? A client who has: 3) Stridor
1) Crackles Rationale:
2) Rhonchi Stridor is a sign of respiratory distress, possibly airway obstruction. Crackles and
3) Stridor rhonchi indicate fluid in the lung; wheezes are caused by narrowing of the airway.
4) Wheezes Crackles, rhonchi, and wheezes indicate respiratory illness and are potentially
serious but do not necessarily indicate respiratory distress that requires immediate
medical attention.
The nurse assesses the client's pedal pulses as having a Answer:
pulse volume of 1 on a scale of 0 to 3. Based on this 2) Blood pressure
assessment finding, it would be important for the nurse to
also assess the: Rationale:
If the leg pulses are weak, the nurse should assess the blood pressure in order to
1) Pulse deficit further explore the reason for the low pulse volume. If the blood pressure is low,
2) Blood pressure then a low pulse volume would be expected. The pulse deficit is the difference
3) Apical pulse between the apical and radial pulse. The apical pulse would not be helpful to
4) Pulse pressure assess peripheral circulation. The pulse pressure is the difference between the
systolic and diastolic pressures.
OF NURSING WITH RATIONALE 2026 |
COMPLETE PRACTICE GUIDE
| GRADED A+ | GUARANTEED SUCCESS
Updated 2026 Questions and Answers
100% Verified Exam Prep and Comprehensive
Rationales Included
,Which factor in the patient's past medical history dictates Answer:
that the nurse exercise caution when administering 1) Hepatitis B
acetaminophen (Tylenol)?
Rationale:
1) Hepatitis B Even in recommended doses, acetaminophen can cause severe hepatotoxicity in
2) Occasional alcohol use patients with liver disease, such as hepatitis B. Patients who consume alcohol
3) Allergy to aspirin regularly should also use acetaminophen cautiously. Those allergic to aspirin or
4) Gastric irritation with bleeding other nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) can use acetaminophen
safely. Acetaminophen rarely causes gastrointestinal (GI) problems; therefore, it
can be used for those with a history of gastric irritation and bleeding.
Which action should the nurse take before administering Answer:
morphine 4.0 mg intravenously to a patient complaining 3) Assess the patient's respiratory status.
of incisional pain?
Rationale:
1) Assess the patient's incision. Before administering an opioid analgesic, such as morphine, the nurse should
2) Clarify the order with the prescriber. assess the patient's respiratory status because opioid analgesics can cause
3) Assess the patient's respiratory status. respiratory depression. It is not necessary to clarify the order with the physician
4) Monitor the patient's heart rate. because morphine 4 mg IV is an appropriate dose. It is not necessary to monitor
the patient's heart rate.
Which action should the nurse take when preparing Answer:
patient-controlled analgesia for a postoperative patient? 2) Ask another nurse to double-check the setup before patient use.
1) Caution the patient to limit the number of times he Rationale:
presses the dosing button. As a safeguard to reduce the risk for dosing errors, the nurse should request
2) Ask another nurse to double-check the setup before another nurse to double-check the setup before patient use. The nurse should
patient use. reassure the patient that the pump has a lockout feature that prevents him from
3) Instruct the patient to administer a dose only when overdosing even if he continues to push the dose administration button. The nurse
experiencing pain. should also instruct the patient to administer a dose before potentially painful
4) Provide clear, simple instructions for dosing if the activities, such as walking. Patient-controlled analgesia is contraindicated for
patient is cognitively impaired. those who are cognitively impaired.
The nurse administers codeine sulfate 30 mg orally to a Answer:
patient who underwent craniotomy 3 days ago for a brain 4) In 60 minutes
tumor. How soon after administration should the nurse
reassess the patient's pain? Rationale:
Codeine administered by the oral route reaches peak concentration in 60
1) Immediately minutes; therefore, the nurse should reassess the patient's pain 60 minutes after
2) In 10 minutes administration. The nurse should reassess pain after 10 minutes when administering
3) In 15 minutes codeine by the intramuscular or subcutaneous routes. Drugs administered by the
4) In 60 minutes intravenous (IV) route are effective almost immediately; however, codeine is not
recommended for IV administration.
, Which nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug might be Answer:
administered to inhibit platelet aggregation in a patient at 3) Aspirin (Ecotrin)
risk for thrombophlebitis?
Rationale:
1) Ibuprofen (Motrin) Aspirin is a unique NSAID that inhibits platelet aggregation. Low-dose aspirin
2) Celecoxib (Celebrex) therapy is commonly administered to decrease the risk of thrombophlebitis,
3) Aspirin (Ecotrin) myocardial infarction, and stroke. Ibuprofen, celecoxib, and indomethacin are
4) Indomethacin (Indocin) NSAIDs, but they do not inhibit platelet aggregation.
A client who is receiving epidural analgesia complains of Answer:
nausea and loss of motor function in his legs. The nurse 3) Epidural catheter migration
obtains his blood pressure and notes a drop in his blood
pressure from the previous reading. Which complication Rationale:
is the patient most likely experiencing? The patient is exhibiting signs of epidural catheter migration, which include
nausea, a decrease in blood pressure, and loss of motor function without an
1) Infection at the catheter insertion site identifiable cause. Signs of infection at the catheter site include redness, swelling,
2) Side effect of the epidural analgesic and drainage. Loss of motor function is not a typical side effect associated with
3) Epidural catheter migration epidural analgesics. These are common signs of catheter migration, not spinal
4) Spinal cord damage cord damage.
Which of the following clients is experiencing an Answer:
abnormal change in vital signs? A client whose (select all 1) Blood pressure (BP) was 132/80 mm Hg sitting and is 120/60 mm Hg upon
that apply): standing
3) Heart rate was 76 before eating and is 60 after eating
1) Blood pressure (BP) was 132/80 mm Hg sitting and is
120/60 mm Hg upon standing Rationale:
2) Rectal temperature is 97.9°F in the morning and 99.2°F The BP change is abnormal; a BP change greater than 10 mm Hg may indicate
in the evening postural hypotension. The change in heart rate is abnormal; heart rate usually
3) Heart rate was 76 before eating and is 60 after eating increases slightly after eating rather than decreasing. The temperatures are within
4) Respiratory rate was 14 when standing and is 22 after normal range for the rectal route, and temperature increases throughout the day.
walking It is normal to have an increased respiratory rate after exercise.
The nurse assesses clients' breath sounds. Which one Answer:
requires immediate medical attention? A client who has: 3) Stridor
1) Crackles Rationale:
2) Rhonchi Stridor is a sign of respiratory distress, possibly airway obstruction. Crackles and
3) Stridor rhonchi indicate fluid in the lung; wheezes are caused by narrowing of the airway.
4) Wheezes Crackles, rhonchi, and wheezes indicate respiratory illness and are potentially
serious but do not necessarily indicate respiratory distress that requires immediate
medical attention.
The nurse assesses the client's pedal pulses as having a Answer:
pulse volume of 1 on a scale of 0 to 3. Based on this 2) Blood pressure
assessment finding, it would be important for the nurse to
also assess the: Rationale:
If the leg pulses are weak, the nurse should assess the blood pressure in order to
1) Pulse deficit further explore the reason for the low pulse volume. If the blood pressure is low,
2) Blood pressure then a low pulse volume would be expected. The pulse deficit is the difference
3) Apical pulse between the apical and radial pulse. The apical pulse would not be helpful to
4) Pulse pressure assess peripheral circulation. The pulse pressure is the difference between the
systolic and diastolic pressures.
