NURS 5334 EXAM 2 (UTA) NEWEST 2026
TEST BANK| NURS 5334 ADVANCED
PHARMACOLOGY EXAM 2
1. Alpha 1 receptor stimulation causes which of the following effects?
A. Bronchodilation and uterine relaxation
B. Vasoconstriction and contraction of the bladder neck
C. Increased heart rate and force of contraction
D. Glycogenolysis and vasodilation
• Answer: B.
• Rationale: Alpha-1 receptors are primarily located on vascular smooth
muscle, the bladder neck, and the prostate. Their stimulation leads to
vasoconstriction, ejaculation, and contraction of the bladder neck and
prostate .
2. Beta 2 receptor stimulation causes which of the following effects?
A. Vasoconstriction and increased peripheral resistance
B. Increased heart rate and renin release
C. Bronchodilation and uterine relaxation
D. Mydriasis and decreased GI motility
• Answer: C.
• Rationale: Beta-2 receptors are located in the bronchioles, uterine muscle,
and blood vessels of skeletal muscle. Stimulation leads to bronchodilation,
uterine relaxation, and vasodilation in skeletal muscle .
3. What are the primary neurotransmitters of the peripheral nervous system?
A. Dopamine and serotonin
B. Acetylcholine and norepinephrine/epinephrine
C. GABA and glutamate
D. Substance P and nitric oxide
, • Answer: B.
• Rationale: Acetylcholine mediates effects at cholinergic receptors, while
norepinephrine and epinephrine mediate effects at adrenergic receptors in
the peripheral nervous system .
4. A patient with urinary retention is prescribed bethanechol. What is its
mechanism of action?
A. Blocks acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors
B. Directly stimulates muscarinic receptors
C. Inhibits acetylcholinesterase
D. Blocks alpha-adrenergic receptors
• Answer: B.
• Rationale: Bethanechol is a direct-acting cholinergic agonist that stimulates
muscarinic receptors. This increases bladder contraction and relaxes the
trigone and sphincter, promoting urination .
5. A patient prescribed atropine should be monitored for which of the following
side effects?
A. Diarrhea and increased salivation
B. Blurred vision and dry mouth
C. Bronchodilation and bradycardia
D. Miosis and urinary frequency
• Answer: B.
• Rationale: Atropine is an anticholinergic (muscarinic antagonist). Blocking
the parasympathetic nervous system leads to side effects like dry mouth,
blurred vision, increased intraocular pressure, urinary retention,
constipation, and tachycardia .
6. A patient with asthma should avoid which beta-blocker?
A. Metoprolol
B. Atenolol
C. Propranolol
D. Bisoprolol
• Answer: C.
, • Rationale: Propranolol is a non-selective beta-blocker that blocks both
beta-1 (heart) and beta-2 (lungs) receptors. Blocking beta-2 receptors can
cause bronchospasm. Cardioselective beta-blockers (metoprolol, atenolol,
bisoprolol) are preferred in patients with asthma .
7. Which of the following is an adverse effect commonly associated with alpha-1
blockers used for BPH?
A. Bradycardia
B. Orthostatic hypotension
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hypoglycemia
• Answer: B.
• Rationale: Alpha-1 blockers like tamsulosin cause vasodilation, which can
lead to orthostatic hypotension. Patients should be advised to rise slowly
from sitting or lying positions .
8. A patient prescribed clonidine should be counseled to avoid which potential
complication of abrupt discontinuation?
A. Severe hypotension
B. Rebound hypertension
C. Tachycardia
D. Hyperglycemia
• Answer: B.
• Rationale: Clonidine is a central alpha-2 agonist. Abrupt discontinuation
can cause rebound hypertension due to sympathetic overactivity. The dose
should be tapered under medical supervision .
9. A patient is prescribed labetalol for a hypertensive emergency. What is
unique about this drug's mechanism?
A. It is a pure beta-1 blocker.
B. It is a pure alpha-1 blocker.
C. It has combined alpha and beta-blocking properties.
D. It is a central alpha-2 agonist.
• Answer: C.
, • Rationale: Labetalol is a combined alpha-1 and beta-blocker. It reduces
blood pressure through both vasodilation (alpha blockade) and decreased
cardiac output (beta blockade) .
10. A patient is prescribed scopolamine. What is the intended therapeutic use?
A. Glaucoma
B. Urinary retention
C. Motion sickness
D. Asthma
• Answer: C.
• Rationale: Scopolamine is a muscarinic antagonist used to prevent motion
sickness .
11. Which medication is an indirect-acting cholinergic agonist (cholinesterase
inhibitor)?
A. Bethanechol
B. Neostigmine
C. Pilocarpine
D. Atropine
• Answer: B.
• Rationale: Neostigmine is a cholinesterase inhibitor. It works by preventing
the breakdown of acetylcholine, increasing its availability at the synapse.
Bethanechol and pilocarpine are direct-acting agonists .
12. A patient on an anticholinergic for overactive bladder should be monitored
for which effect?
A. Urinary frequency
B. Diarrhea
C. Dry mouth and constipation
D. Bradycardia
• Answer: C.
• Rationale: Anticholinergics block parasympathetic effects, leading to dry
mouth, constipation, urinary retention, blurred vision, and tachycardia .
TEST BANK| NURS 5334 ADVANCED
PHARMACOLOGY EXAM 2
1. Alpha 1 receptor stimulation causes which of the following effects?
A. Bronchodilation and uterine relaxation
B. Vasoconstriction and contraction of the bladder neck
C. Increased heart rate and force of contraction
D. Glycogenolysis and vasodilation
• Answer: B.
• Rationale: Alpha-1 receptors are primarily located on vascular smooth
muscle, the bladder neck, and the prostate. Their stimulation leads to
vasoconstriction, ejaculation, and contraction of the bladder neck and
prostate .
2. Beta 2 receptor stimulation causes which of the following effects?
A. Vasoconstriction and increased peripheral resistance
B. Increased heart rate and renin release
C. Bronchodilation and uterine relaxation
D. Mydriasis and decreased GI motility
• Answer: C.
• Rationale: Beta-2 receptors are located in the bronchioles, uterine muscle,
and blood vessels of skeletal muscle. Stimulation leads to bronchodilation,
uterine relaxation, and vasodilation in skeletal muscle .
3. What are the primary neurotransmitters of the peripheral nervous system?
A. Dopamine and serotonin
B. Acetylcholine and norepinephrine/epinephrine
C. GABA and glutamate
D. Substance P and nitric oxide
, • Answer: B.
• Rationale: Acetylcholine mediates effects at cholinergic receptors, while
norepinephrine and epinephrine mediate effects at adrenergic receptors in
the peripheral nervous system .
4. A patient with urinary retention is prescribed bethanechol. What is its
mechanism of action?
A. Blocks acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors
B. Directly stimulates muscarinic receptors
C. Inhibits acetylcholinesterase
D. Blocks alpha-adrenergic receptors
• Answer: B.
• Rationale: Bethanechol is a direct-acting cholinergic agonist that stimulates
muscarinic receptors. This increases bladder contraction and relaxes the
trigone and sphincter, promoting urination .
5. A patient prescribed atropine should be monitored for which of the following
side effects?
A. Diarrhea and increased salivation
B. Blurred vision and dry mouth
C. Bronchodilation and bradycardia
D. Miosis and urinary frequency
• Answer: B.
• Rationale: Atropine is an anticholinergic (muscarinic antagonist). Blocking
the parasympathetic nervous system leads to side effects like dry mouth,
blurred vision, increased intraocular pressure, urinary retention,
constipation, and tachycardia .
6. A patient with asthma should avoid which beta-blocker?
A. Metoprolol
B. Atenolol
C. Propranolol
D. Bisoprolol
• Answer: C.
, • Rationale: Propranolol is a non-selective beta-blocker that blocks both
beta-1 (heart) and beta-2 (lungs) receptors. Blocking beta-2 receptors can
cause bronchospasm. Cardioselective beta-blockers (metoprolol, atenolol,
bisoprolol) are preferred in patients with asthma .
7. Which of the following is an adverse effect commonly associated with alpha-1
blockers used for BPH?
A. Bradycardia
B. Orthostatic hypotension
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hypoglycemia
• Answer: B.
• Rationale: Alpha-1 blockers like tamsulosin cause vasodilation, which can
lead to orthostatic hypotension. Patients should be advised to rise slowly
from sitting or lying positions .
8. A patient prescribed clonidine should be counseled to avoid which potential
complication of abrupt discontinuation?
A. Severe hypotension
B. Rebound hypertension
C. Tachycardia
D. Hyperglycemia
• Answer: B.
• Rationale: Clonidine is a central alpha-2 agonist. Abrupt discontinuation
can cause rebound hypertension due to sympathetic overactivity. The dose
should be tapered under medical supervision .
9. A patient is prescribed labetalol for a hypertensive emergency. What is
unique about this drug's mechanism?
A. It is a pure beta-1 blocker.
B. It is a pure alpha-1 blocker.
C. It has combined alpha and beta-blocking properties.
D. It is a central alpha-2 agonist.
• Answer: C.
, • Rationale: Labetalol is a combined alpha-1 and beta-blocker. It reduces
blood pressure through both vasodilation (alpha blockade) and decreased
cardiac output (beta blockade) .
10. A patient is prescribed scopolamine. What is the intended therapeutic use?
A. Glaucoma
B. Urinary retention
C. Motion sickness
D. Asthma
• Answer: C.
• Rationale: Scopolamine is a muscarinic antagonist used to prevent motion
sickness .
11. Which medication is an indirect-acting cholinergic agonist (cholinesterase
inhibitor)?
A. Bethanechol
B. Neostigmine
C. Pilocarpine
D. Atropine
• Answer: B.
• Rationale: Neostigmine is a cholinesterase inhibitor. It works by preventing
the breakdown of acetylcholine, increasing its availability at the synapse.
Bethanechol and pilocarpine are direct-acting agonists .
12. A patient on an anticholinergic for overactive bladder should be monitored
for which effect?
A. Urinary frequency
B. Diarrhea
C. Dry mouth and constipation
D. Bradycardia
• Answer: C.
• Rationale: Anticholinergics block parasympathetic effects, leading to dry
mouth, constipation, urinary retention, blurred vision, and tachycardia .
