MEDICAL CODING EXAM 1 | MEDICAL CODER
| LATEST 2025-2026 QUESTION AND CORRECT
ANSWER WITH EXPLANATION WEST COAST
UNIVERSITY
1. A patient is seen for acute bronchitis caused by respiratory syncytial
virus (RSV). Which is the most appropriate ICD-10-CM code assignment?
A. J20.9
B. J21.0
C. J20.5
D. B97.4
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: J20.5 specifically identifies acute bronchitis due to RSV. J20.9
is unspecified, J21.0 refers to bronchiolitis, and B97.4 is used as an
additional code when needed, not primary.
2. A provider documents “Type 2 diabetes mellitus with diabetic chronic
kidney disease.” What is the correct coding approach?
A. Assign only E11.9
B. Assign E11.22 and N18.-
C. Assign E11.21 only
D. Assign N18.- only
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Combination code E11.22 identifies diabetes with CKD, and
an additional code from N18.- is required to specify CKD stage.
3. A patient undergoes a laparoscopic appendectomy. Which CPT code is
appropriate?
A. 44950
B. 44960
C. 44970
D. 44955
,Correct Answer: C
Rationale: CPT 44970 describes laparoscopic appendectomy. 44950 is
for open appendectomy.
4. A coder encounters documentation of “history of malignant neoplasm
of breast, currently no evidence of disease.” What ICD-10-CM code is
appropriate?
A. C50.919
B. Z85.3
C. Z08
D. D05.90
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Z85.3 is used for personal history of breast cancer when no
active disease is present.
5. A patient presents with chest pain and is diagnosed with NSTEMI.
Which code is correct?
A. I21.4
B. I20.9
C. I21.3
D. I25.2
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: I21.4 represents non-ST elevation myocardial infarction.
Other codes refer to angina, STEMI, or old MI.
6. Which modifier is used to indicate a significant, separately identifiable
E/M service on the same day as a procedure?
A. Modifier 25
B. Modifier 59
C. Modifier 51
D. Modifier 76
, Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Modifier 25 is used when an E/M service is distinct from a
procedure performed on the same day.
7. A patient undergoes bilateral knee arthroscopy. Which modifier is
appropriate?
A. 50
B. 26
C. 59
D. 76
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Modifier 50 indicates a bilateral procedure.
8. In ICD-10-CM, what does a “code first” note indicate?
A. Sequence the listed code first
B. Use the code only if primary
C. Another underlying condition must be coded first
D. Code is optional
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: “Code first” indicates the underlying condition should be
sequenced before the manifestation.
9. A patient is admitted for sepsis due to E. coli. What is the principal
diagnosis?
A. R65.20
B. A41.51
C. B96.20
D. N39.0
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A41.51 identifies sepsis due to E. coli and is sequenced first
when sepsis is the reason for admission.
| LATEST 2025-2026 QUESTION AND CORRECT
ANSWER WITH EXPLANATION WEST COAST
UNIVERSITY
1. A patient is seen for acute bronchitis caused by respiratory syncytial
virus (RSV). Which is the most appropriate ICD-10-CM code assignment?
A. J20.9
B. J21.0
C. J20.5
D. B97.4
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: J20.5 specifically identifies acute bronchitis due to RSV. J20.9
is unspecified, J21.0 refers to bronchiolitis, and B97.4 is used as an
additional code when needed, not primary.
2. A provider documents “Type 2 diabetes mellitus with diabetic chronic
kidney disease.” What is the correct coding approach?
A. Assign only E11.9
B. Assign E11.22 and N18.-
C. Assign E11.21 only
D. Assign N18.- only
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Combination code E11.22 identifies diabetes with CKD, and
an additional code from N18.- is required to specify CKD stage.
3. A patient undergoes a laparoscopic appendectomy. Which CPT code is
appropriate?
A. 44950
B. 44960
C. 44970
D. 44955
,Correct Answer: C
Rationale: CPT 44970 describes laparoscopic appendectomy. 44950 is
for open appendectomy.
4. A coder encounters documentation of “history of malignant neoplasm
of breast, currently no evidence of disease.” What ICD-10-CM code is
appropriate?
A. C50.919
B. Z85.3
C. Z08
D. D05.90
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Z85.3 is used for personal history of breast cancer when no
active disease is present.
5. A patient presents with chest pain and is diagnosed with NSTEMI.
Which code is correct?
A. I21.4
B. I20.9
C. I21.3
D. I25.2
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: I21.4 represents non-ST elevation myocardial infarction.
Other codes refer to angina, STEMI, or old MI.
6. Which modifier is used to indicate a significant, separately identifiable
E/M service on the same day as a procedure?
A. Modifier 25
B. Modifier 59
C. Modifier 51
D. Modifier 76
, Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Modifier 25 is used when an E/M service is distinct from a
procedure performed on the same day.
7. A patient undergoes bilateral knee arthroscopy. Which modifier is
appropriate?
A. 50
B. 26
C. 59
D. 76
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Modifier 50 indicates a bilateral procedure.
8. In ICD-10-CM, what does a “code first” note indicate?
A. Sequence the listed code first
B. Use the code only if primary
C. Another underlying condition must be coded first
D. Code is optional
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: “Code first” indicates the underlying condition should be
sequenced before the manifestation.
9. A patient is admitted for sepsis due to E. coli. What is the principal
diagnosis?
A. R65.20
B. A41.51
C. B96.20
D. N39.0
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A41.51 identifies sepsis due to E. coli and is sequenced first
when sepsis is the reason for admission.
