HESI RN OB/Maternity Exam V1 – (2026) Actual
Questions & Answers (HESI) 100% Guarantee Pass
SECTION 1: ANTEPARTUM NURSING (Questions 1–14)
Q1: A client at her first prenatal visit reports her last menstrual period began on March 10.
Using Naegele's rule, what is her estimated due date?
A. November 17
B. December 17
C. January 17
D. October 17
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because Naegele's rule calculates EDD by subtracting 3 months from the first
day of the LMP and adding 7 days. March 10 minus 3 months equals December 10; adding 7
days equals December 17. Per standard maternity nursing practice, this is the accepted method
for estimating gestational age.
Q2: A pregnant client is classified as G3 T1 P1 A0 L2. Which statement accurately describes her
obstetric history?
A. She has had two full-term deliveries and one preterm delivery
B. She has had one full-term delivery, one preterm delivery, and is currently pregnant
C. She has had three pregnancies with two living children and one abortion
D. She has had three pregnancies with one full-term delivery, one preterm delivery, and no
abortions
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Correct because GTPAL classification defines G as total pregnancies (3), T as term
deliveries ≥37 weeks (1), P as preterm deliveries 20-36.6 weeks (1), A as abortions <20 weeks
,(0), and L as living children (2). Standard HESI maternity nursing practice requires accurate
interpretation of obstetric history for risk assessment.
Q3: A 36-year-old primigravida asks the nurse about risks associated with advanced maternal
age. Which complication should the nurse identify as having the highest increased risk?
A. Gestational diabetes mellitus
B. Chromosomal abnormalities
C. Preeclampsia
D. Cesarean delivery
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because advanced maternal age (≥35 years) carries the most significant
increased risk for chromosomal abnormalities, particularly Down syndrome (trisomy 21). Per
ACOG guidelines, the risk of Down syndrome increases from approximately 1 in 1,250 at age 25
to 1 in 100 at age 40. While all listed complications have increased incidence, chromosomal
abnormalities represent the most age-dependent risk.
Q4: At 28 weeks gestation, a client's fundal height measures 24 cm. Which action should the
nurse take first?
A. Schedule an ultrasound for intrauterine growth restriction
B. Recheck measurement technique and compare with previous measurements
C. Notify the provider immediately of suspected fetal growth restriction
D. Instruct the client to increase caloric intake
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because fundal height should correspond to gestational age within ±2 cm; a
4 cm discrepancy warrants reassessment of measurement technique first. Standard HESI
maternity nursing practice requires verifying technique, ensuring the bladder is empty, and
reviewing previous measurements before escalating concerns. If discrepancy persists, further
evaluation with ultrasound is indicated.
, Q5: A pregnant client at 32 weeks gestation reports decreased fetal movement. She performs
kick counts and notes only 6 movements in 2 hours. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
A. Reassure the client that decreased movement is normal in the third trimester
B. Instruct the client to drink juice and lie on her left side for another hour
C. Have the client come to the office immediately for a non-stress test
D. Schedule a routine follow-up appointment within the week
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because kick counts should demonstrate at least 10 movements in 2 hours;
fewer than 10 movements warrants immediate evaluation with a non-stress test. Per ACOG
guidelines, decreased fetal movement is a significant warning sign requiring prompt assessment
to evaluate fetal well-being and rule out fetal compromise or placental insufficiency.
Q6: During a prenatal visit, the nurse auscultates the fetal heart rate at 168 bpm. What is the
nurse's most appropriate action?
A. Document the finding as normal and continue the examination
B. Recheck the fetal heart rate after having the client change position
C. Notify the provider immediately of fetal tachycardia
D. Administer supplemental oxygen and IV fluids
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because the normal fetal heart rate baseline is 110-160 bpm; 168 bpm
represents mild tachycardia that may be transient due to maternal position, activity, or fever.
Standard HESI maternity nursing practice requires rechecking after position change and
assessing for maternal factors (fever, dehydration, anxiety, medications) before escalating.
Persistent tachycardia requires provider notification.
Q7: A pregnant client with a normal pre-pregnancy BMI asks about recommended total weight
gain. What should the nurse teach?
A. 15 to 25 pounds
B. 25 to 35 pounds
Questions & Answers (HESI) 100% Guarantee Pass
SECTION 1: ANTEPARTUM NURSING (Questions 1–14)
Q1: A client at her first prenatal visit reports her last menstrual period began on March 10.
Using Naegele's rule, what is her estimated due date?
A. November 17
B. December 17
C. January 17
D. October 17
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because Naegele's rule calculates EDD by subtracting 3 months from the first
day of the LMP and adding 7 days. March 10 minus 3 months equals December 10; adding 7
days equals December 17. Per standard maternity nursing practice, this is the accepted method
for estimating gestational age.
Q2: A pregnant client is classified as G3 T1 P1 A0 L2. Which statement accurately describes her
obstetric history?
A. She has had two full-term deliveries and one preterm delivery
B. She has had one full-term delivery, one preterm delivery, and is currently pregnant
C. She has had three pregnancies with two living children and one abortion
D. She has had three pregnancies with one full-term delivery, one preterm delivery, and no
abortions
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Correct because GTPAL classification defines G as total pregnancies (3), T as term
deliveries ≥37 weeks (1), P as preterm deliveries 20-36.6 weeks (1), A as abortions <20 weeks
,(0), and L as living children (2). Standard HESI maternity nursing practice requires accurate
interpretation of obstetric history for risk assessment.
Q3: A 36-year-old primigravida asks the nurse about risks associated with advanced maternal
age. Which complication should the nurse identify as having the highest increased risk?
A. Gestational diabetes mellitus
B. Chromosomal abnormalities
C. Preeclampsia
D. Cesarean delivery
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because advanced maternal age (≥35 years) carries the most significant
increased risk for chromosomal abnormalities, particularly Down syndrome (trisomy 21). Per
ACOG guidelines, the risk of Down syndrome increases from approximately 1 in 1,250 at age 25
to 1 in 100 at age 40. While all listed complications have increased incidence, chromosomal
abnormalities represent the most age-dependent risk.
Q4: At 28 weeks gestation, a client's fundal height measures 24 cm. Which action should the
nurse take first?
A. Schedule an ultrasound for intrauterine growth restriction
B. Recheck measurement technique and compare with previous measurements
C. Notify the provider immediately of suspected fetal growth restriction
D. Instruct the client to increase caloric intake
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because fundal height should correspond to gestational age within ±2 cm; a
4 cm discrepancy warrants reassessment of measurement technique first. Standard HESI
maternity nursing practice requires verifying technique, ensuring the bladder is empty, and
reviewing previous measurements before escalating concerns. If discrepancy persists, further
evaluation with ultrasound is indicated.
, Q5: A pregnant client at 32 weeks gestation reports decreased fetal movement. She performs
kick counts and notes only 6 movements in 2 hours. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
A. Reassure the client that decreased movement is normal in the third trimester
B. Instruct the client to drink juice and lie on her left side for another hour
C. Have the client come to the office immediately for a non-stress test
D. Schedule a routine follow-up appointment within the week
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because kick counts should demonstrate at least 10 movements in 2 hours;
fewer than 10 movements warrants immediate evaluation with a non-stress test. Per ACOG
guidelines, decreased fetal movement is a significant warning sign requiring prompt assessment
to evaluate fetal well-being and rule out fetal compromise or placental insufficiency.
Q6: During a prenatal visit, the nurse auscultates the fetal heart rate at 168 bpm. What is the
nurse's most appropriate action?
A. Document the finding as normal and continue the examination
B. Recheck the fetal heart rate after having the client change position
C. Notify the provider immediately of fetal tachycardia
D. Administer supplemental oxygen and IV fluids
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because the normal fetal heart rate baseline is 110-160 bpm; 168 bpm
represents mild tachycardia that may be transient due to maternal position, activity, or fever.
Standard HESI maternity nursing practice requires rechecking after position change and
assessing for maternal factors (fever, dehydration, anxiety, medications) before escalating.
Persistent tachycardia requires provider notification.
Q7: A pregnant client with a normal pre-pregnancy BMI asks about recommended total weight
gain. What should the nurse teach?
A. 15 to 25 pounds
B. 25 to 35 pounds
