1
ATI FINAL LPN COMPREHENSIVE EXAM
PREDICTOR|BOTH RETAKE VERSIONS
INCLUDED
Management of Care and Delegation
1. An RN is making assignments for client care to an LPN at the beginning of the shift. Which of the
following assignments should the LPN question?
A. Assisting a client who is 24 hr post-op to use an incentive spirometer.
B. Collecting a clean catch urine specimen from a client who was admitted on the previous shift.
C. Providing nasopharyngeal suctioning for a client who has pneumonia.
D. Replacing the cartridge and tubing on a PCA pump.
Correct Answer: D. Replacing the cartridge and tubing on a PCA pump.
Rationale: LPNs can assist with routine care such as incentive spirometry, non-sterile specimen
collection, and stable suctioning procedures. However, managing a Patient-Controlled Analgesia (PCA)
pump involves advanced assessment and medication management skills that fall outside the LPN scope
of practice and are the responsibility of an RN .
2. A charge nurse is determining tasks to assign to an assistive personnel (AP). Which task is
appropriate to delegate?
A. Feeding a patient admitted 24 hours ago with aspiration pneumonia.
B. Reinforcing cane-walking technique with a patient.
C. Reapplying a condom catheter for a patient with urinary incontinence.
D. Applying a sterile dressing to a pressure ulcer.
Correct Answer: C. Reapplying a condom catheter for a patient with urinary incontinence.
Rationale: Reapplying a condom catheter is a non-invasive, routine, and standard procedure that can be
safely delegated to an AP. Tasks requiring clinical judgment (e.g., assessing feeding safety for a patient
with aspiration precautions), patient teaching, or sterile technique must be performed by licensed
nursing staff .
,3. A nurse is preparing to delegate client care to an assistive personnel (AP). Which of the following
pieces of information should the nurse verify prior to delegation?
A. The AP's years of experience.
B. The client's length of facility stay.
C. The client's age.
D. The AP's job description.
Correct Answer: D. The AP's job description.
Rationale: Delegation is based on the scope of practice and the specific job description of the delegatee.
The RN must ensure the task is within the AP’s legally defined role and that the AP has demonstrated
competency, regardless of their years of experience. The client's age or length of stay is not the primary
factor for safe delegation .
4. Which of the following are part of the "Five Rights of Delegation"? (Select all that apply)
A. Right patient.
B. Right supervision/evaluation.
C. Right direction/communication.
D. Right time.
E. Right circumstances.
Correct Answers: B, C, and E. (Right supervision/evaluation, Right direction/communication, Right
circumstances).
Rationale: The five rights of delegation are: Right Task, Right Circumstances, Right Person, Right
Direction/Communication, and Right Supervision/Evaluation. "Right patient" and "right time" are part
of the "Rights of Medication Administration," not the delegation framework .
5. A nurse is completing an incident report after a client fell. Which of the following statements is
correct to include in the report?
A. "Client had a bad reaction to the new medication and fell."
B. "Warfarin 10 mg given instead of 5 mg at 0900, client found on floor at 1000."
C. "The nurse was very busy and distracted when the fall occurred."
D. "The physical therapist should have been in the room."
Correct Answer: B. "Warfarin 10 mg given instead of 5 mg at 0900, client found on floor at 1000."
Rationale: Incident reports should contain objective, factual, and non-judgmental information about the
event. They are not part of the medical record and should not include blaming statements, opinions, or
speculation about causes .
6. A nurse discovers a small fire in a client's room. Place the following actions in the correct order.
1. Pull the alarm.
2. Rescue clients in immediate danger.
, 3. Extinguish the fire if small.
4. Close doors and windows.
A. 2, 1, 4, 3
B. 2, 4, 1, 3
C. 1, 2, 3, 4
D. 4, 2, 1, 3
Correct Answer: A. 2, 1, 4, 3.
Rationale: The correct sequence follows the RACE mnemonic: Rescue clients in immediate
danger, Activate the alarm, Contain the fire (close doors/windows), and Extinguish if it is small and safe
to do so .
⚕️ Safety and Infection Control
7. A charge nurse is assigning rooms for new admissions. Which client requires a private room?
A. A client with diabetic ketoacidosis.
B. A client with a fractured femur.
C. A client with Clostridioides difficile infection.
D. A client with angina pectoris.
Correct Answer: C. A client with Clostridioides difficile infection.
Rationale: C. diff requires Contact Precautions because it is spread via spores that contaminate surfaces
and are not killed by alcohol-based hand sanitizers. A private room is essential to prevent the
transmission of these spores to other clients .
8. Which client requires airborne precautions?
A. A client with Clostridioides difficile.
B. A client with Measles (Rubeola).
C. A client with MRSA wound infection.
D. A client with RSV.
Correct Answer: B. A client with Measles (Rubeola).
Rationale: Measles, Varicella (chickenpox), and Tuberculosis (TB) are transmitted via small airborne
particles. These clients require an N95 respirator (or higher) and a negative pressure airborne infection
isolation room .
9. A client is placed in wrist restraints after less restrictive measures failed. Which of the following
actions is correct regarding restraint use?
A. A provider's order must be obtained within a specific timeframe.
, B. Restraints can be applied for the convenience of the staff.
C. The nurse can use a PRN (as needed) order for restraints.
D. The nurse should assess the client every 4 hours.
Correct Answer: A. A provider's order must be obtained within a specific timeframe.
Rationale: Restraints are a last resort. A provider's order is required, must be time-limited, and is never
written as a PRN order. The nurse must assess the client's circulation, comfort, and mental status
frequently (e.g., every 1-2 hours depending on facility policy), not every 4 hours .
10. A nurse receives a telephone prescription from a provider. What action should the nurse take
first?
A. Ask the provider to spell the medication name.
B. Read the prescription back to the provider.
C. Inform another nurse of the prescription.
D. Document the prescription in the chart.
Correct Answer: B. Read the prescription back to the provider.
Rationale: The Joint Commission requires a process of "read back" or "repeat back" to prevent errors.
The nurse must write down the order, read it back verbatim to the provider, and receive confirmation
that it is correct before documenting it .
� Physiological Integrity and Prioritization
11. A nurse is caring for four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?
A. A client with pneumonia who has a fever of 38.3°C (101°F).
B. A client with a new tracheostomy who has thick, yellow secretions.
C. A client who is 1-day post-operative and reports pain of 6 on a 0-10 scale.
D. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who has a blood glucose of 180 mg/dL.
Correct Answer: B. A client with a new tracheostomy who has thick, yellow secretions.
Rationale: Prioritization always follows the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation). Thick secretions can
easily obstruct a new tracheostomy, leading to a life-threatening airway emergency. Pain, fever, and a
slightly elevated glucose are important but lower priorities than a potential airway obstruction .
12. A nurse is caring for a client who is 1-hour post-op from a thyroidectomy and reports stridor. What
is the priority action?
A. Administer pain medication.
B. Assess the client's vital signs.
C. Check the neurovascular status of the leg.
D. Reinforce the surgical dressing.
ATI FINAL LPN COMPREHENSIVE EXAM
PREDICTOR|BOTH RETAKE VERSIONS
INCLUDED
Management of Care and Delegation
1. An RN is making assignments for client care to an LPN at the beginning of the shift. Which of the
following assignments should the LPN question?
A. Assisting a client who is 24 hr post-op to use an incentive spirometer.
B. Collecting a clean catch urine specimen from a client who was admitted on the previous shift.
C. Providing nasopharyngeal suctioning for a client who has pneumonia.
D. Replacing the cartridge and tubing on a PCA pump.
Correct Answer: D. Replacing the cartridge and tubing on a PCA pump.
Rationale: LPNs can assist with routine care such as incentive spirometry, non-sterile specimen
collection, and stable suctioning procedures. However, managing a Patient-Controlled Analgesia (PCA)
pump involves advanced assessment and medication management skills that fall outside the LPN scope
of practice and are the responsibility of an RN .
2. A charge nurse is determining tasks to assign to an assistive personnel (AP). Which task is
appropriate to delegate?
A. Feeding a patient admitted 24 hours ago with aspiration pneumonia.
B. Reinforcing cane-walking technique with a patient.
C. Reapplying a condom catheter for a patient with urinary incontinence.
D. Applying a sterile dressing to a pressure ulcer.
Correct Answer: C. Reapplying a condom catheter for a patient with urinary incontinence.
Rationale: Reapplying a condom catheter is a non-invasive, routine, and standard procedure that can be
safely delegated to an AP. Tasks requiring clinical judgment (e.g., assessing feeding safety for a patient
with aspiration precautions), patient teaching, or sterile technique must be performed by licensed
nursing staff .
,3. A nurse is preparing to delegate client care to an assistive personnel (AP). Which of the following
pieces of information should the nurse verify prior to delegation?
A. The AP's years of experience.
B. The client's length of facility stay.
C. The client's age.
D. The AP's job description.
Correct Answer: D. The AP's job description.
Rationale: Delegation is based on the scope of practice and the specific job description of the delegatee.
The RN must ensure the task is within the AP’s legally defined role and that the AP has demonstrated
competency, regardless of their years of experience. The client's age or length of stay is not the primary
factor for safe delegation .
4. Which of the following are part of the "Five Rights of Delegation"? (Select all that apply)
A. Right patient.
B. Right supervision/evaluation.
C. Right direction/communication.
D. Right time.
E. Right circumstances.
Correct Answers: B, C, and E. (Right supervision/evaluation, Right direction/communication, Right
circumstances).
Rationale: The five rights of delegation are: Right Task, Right Circumstances, Right Person, Right
Direction/Communication, and Right Supervision/Evaluation. "Right patient" and "right time" are part
of the "Rights of Medication Administration," not the delegation framework .
5. A nurse is completing an incident report after a client fell. Which of the following statements is
correct to include in the report?
A. "Client had a bad reaction to the new medication and fell."
B. "Warfarin 10 mg given instead of 5 mg at 0900, client found on floor at 1000."
C. "The nurse was very busy and distracted when the fall occurred."
D. "The physical therapist should have been in the room."
Correct Answer: B. "Warfarin 10 mg given instead of 5 mg at 0900, client found on floor at 1000."
Rationale: Incident reports should contain objective, factual, and non-judgmental information about the
event. They are not part of the medical record and should not include blaming statements, opinions, or
speculation about causes .
6. A nurse discovers a small fire in a client's room. Place the following actions in the correct order.
1. Pull the alarm.
2. Rescue clients in immediate danger.
, 3. Extinguish the fire if small.
4. Close doors and windows.
A. 2, 1, 4, 3
B. 2, 4, 1, 3
C. 1, 2, 3, 4
D. 4, 2, 1, 3
Correct Answer: A. 2, 1, 4, 3.
Rationale: The correct sequence follows the RACE mnemonic: Rescue clients in immediate
danger, Activate the alarm, Contain the fire (close doors/windows), and Extinguish if it is small and safe
to do so .
⚕️ Safety and Infection Control
7. A charge nurse is assigning rooms for new admissions. Which client requires a private room?
A. A client with diabetic ketoacidosis.
B. A client with a fractured femur.
C. A client with Clostridioides difficile infection.
D. A client with angina pectoris.
Correct Answer: C. A client with Clostridioides difficile infection.
Rationale: C. diff requires Contact Precautions because it is spread via spores that contaminate surfaces
and are not killed by alcohol-based hand sanitizers. A private room is essential to prevent the
transmission of these spores to other clients .
8. Which client requires airborne precautions?
A. A client with Clostridioides difficile.
B. A client with Measles (Rubeola).
C. A client with MRSA wound infection.
D. A client with RSV.
Correct Answer: B. A client with Measles (Rubeola).
Rationale: Measles, Varicella (chickenpox), and Tuberculosis (TB) are transmitted via small airborne
particles. These clients require an N95 respirator (or higher) and a negative pressure airborne infection
isolation room .
9. A client is placed in wrist restraints after less restrictive measures failed. Which of the following
actions is correct regarding restraint use?
A. A provider's order must be obtained within a specific timeframe.
, B. Restraints can be applied for the convenience of the staff.
C. The nurse can use a PRN (as needed) order for restraints.
D. The nurse should assess the client every 4 hours.
Correct Answer: A. A provider's order must be obtained within a specific timeframe.
Rationale: Restraints are a last resort. A provider's order is required, must be time-limited, and is never
written as a PRN order. The nurse must assess the client's circulation, comfort, and mental status
frequently (e.g., every 1-2 hours depending on facility policy), not every 4 hours .
10. A nurse receives a telephone prescription from a provider. What action should the nurse take
first?
A. Ask the provider to spell the medication name.
B. Read the prescription back to the provider.
C. Inform another nurse of the prescription.
D. Document the prescription in the chart.
Correct Answer: B. Read the prescription back to the provider.
Rationale: The Joint Commission requires a process of "read back" or "repeat back" to prevent errors.
The nurse must write down the order, read it back verbatim to the provider, and receive confirmation
that it is correct before documenting it .
� Physiological Integrity and Prioritization
11. A nurse is caring for four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?
A. A client with pneumonia who has a fever of 38.3°C (101°F).
B. A client with a new tracheostomy who has thick, yellow secretions.
C. A client who is 1-day post-operative and reports pain of 6 on a 0-10 scale.
D. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who has a blood glucose of 180 mg/dL.
Correct Answer: B. A client with a new tracheostomy who has thick, yellow secretions.
Rationale: Prioritization always follows the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation). Thick secretions can
easily obstruct a new tracheostomy, leading to a life-threatening airway emergency. Pain, fever, and a
slightly elevated glucose are important but lower priorities than a potential airway obstruction .
12. A nurse is caring for a client who is 1-hour post-op from a thyroidectomy and reports stridor. What
is the priority action?
A. Administer pain medication.
B. Assess the client's vital signs.
C. Check the neurovascular status of the leg.
D. Reinforce the surgical dressing.
