NR 302 Health Assessment I Final Exam
Guide | Chamberlain University
Questions and Well Graded Solutions
with Rationales Updated 2026-2027
Master your Health Assessment 1 Final Exam with this comprehensive NR-302 study guide. This
resource features clear explanations of the nursing process (ADPIE), physical examination steps,
and critical therapeutic communication techniques. Review detailed systems updates on
HEENT, Respiratory, Cardiac, and Abdomen assessments. Perfect for Chamberlain University
students seeking accurate practice questions, rationales, and blueprint breakdowns to pass the
final exam on the first try.
1|Page
,1. A nurse is conducting a health history interview. Which action by the nurse
demonstrates an effective therapeutic communication technique?
A) Completing all computer documentation while the client speaks
B) Maintaining frequent eye contact at the client's eye level
C) Offering immediate personal opinions on the client's choices
D) Asking multiple "why" questions regarding the client's habits
Rationale: Maintaining eye contact at eye level demonstrates attentiveness and
builds rapport. Excessive computer use blocks communication. Giving personal
opinions or asking "why" questions can make the client defensive.
2. During an assessment, a client states, "My right knee has been throbbing and aching
for three days." How should the nurse classify this information?
A) Subjective data
B) Objective data
C) Diagnostic data
D) Secondary data
Rationale: Subjective data consists of information provided verbally by the client,
including sensations, feelings, and descriptions of pain. Objective data is measurable
and observable by the practitioner.
3. The nurse obtains a blood pressure reading of 142/92 mmHg on an adult client. This
data is classified as which of the following?
A) Subjective data
B) Objective data
C) Historical data
D) Interpretive data
Rationale: Objective data is signs that can be directly observed, measured, or tested
by the nurse using senses or diagnostic equipment.
4. A nurse is preparing to assess a client's abdomen. In which order should the
physical assessment techniques be performed?
A) Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation
B) Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation
C) Auscultation, Inspection, Palpation, Percussion
D) Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation, Inspection
Rationale: The abdomen is assessed via inspection, auscultation, percussion, and
then palpation. Palpation and percussion are done last because they can alter bowel
sounds and cause false auscultation findings.
5. While assessing a client's skin, the nurse notes a flat, non-palpable skin color
change that measures 0.5 cm in diameter. How should this finding be documented?
A) Macule
B) Papule
C) Nodule
D) Vesicle
Rationale: A macule is a flat, circumscribed, non-palpable skin color change less
than 1 cm in diameter (e.g., a freckle). A papule is elevated and palpable. A vesicle
contains fluid.
2|Page
,6. The nurse is checking a client's capillary refill time. Which of the following results is
considered a normal, healthy finding?
A) 4 seconds
B) 5 seconds
C) Less than 2 seconds
D) Delayed blanching
Rationale: Normal capillary refill time is less than 2 seconds. It indicates adequate
peripheral tissue perfusion. Delayed refill suggests compromised circulation.
7. A nurse is assessing the deep tendon reflexes of a client and notes a normal,
average reflex response. Which score should the nurse document?
A) 0
B) 1+
C) 2+
D) 4+
Rationale: Deep tendon reflexes are graded on a 0 to 4+ scale. A score of 2+
indicates a normal, average, or expected response. 0 is absent, 1+ is diminished,
and 4+ is hyperactive.
8. Which cranial nerve is primarily responsible for the sensation of vision?
A) Cranial Nerve I (Olfactory)
B) Cranial Nerve II (Optic)
C) Cranial Nerve III (Oculomotor)
D) Cranial Nerve IV (Trochlear)
Rationale: Cranial Nerve II (Optic) is responsible for visual acuity and visual fields.
Cranial Nerve I is for smell. Cranial Nerves III and IV control extraocular eye
movements.
9. During an eye assessment, the nurse notes that the client’s pupils constrict when
focusing on a near object after looking at a distant object. What is this phenomenon
called?
A) Direct pupillary reflex
B) Consensual reflex
C) Accommodation
D) Nystagmus
Rationale: Accommodation is the adaptation of the eye for near vision, characterized
by pupillary constriction and convergence of the eyeballs.
10. The nurse is performing an ear assessment on a 25-year-old adult. To properly
visualize the tympanic membrane with an otoscope, how should the nurse
manipulate the pinna?
A) Pull the pinna up and back
B) Pull the pinna straight back
C) Pull the pinna down and back
D) Pull the pinna forward and down
Rationale: For adults and children over 3 years old, the pinna is pulled up and back
to straighten the external auditory canal. For infants and children under 3, it is pulled
down.
3|Page
, 11. A nurse is auscultating a client's breath sounds over the peripheral lung fields. The
sounds heard are soft, low-pitched, with inspiration lasting longer than expiration.
How should these sounds be documented?
A) Bronchial sounds
B) Bronchovesicular sounds
C) Vesicular sounds
D) Tracheal sounds
Rationale: Vesicular breath sounds are soft, low-pitched, and heard over most of the
peripheral lung fields. Inspiration is longer than expiration.
12. The nurse hears high-pitched, scratchy, scraping sounds while auscultating the left
lower sternal border of a client who has pericarditis. What is this sound?
A) S3 heart sound
B) S4 heart sound
C) Pericardial friction rub
D) Midsystolic click
Rationale: A pericardial friction rub is a high-pitched, scratchy sound produced by
inflammation of the pericardial sac, best heard with the diaphragm at the left lower
sternal border.
13. Which of the following pulses is located on the dorsum of the foot, lateral to the
extensor tendon of the great toe?
A) Posterior tibial pulse
B) Dorsalis pedis pulse
C) Popliteal pulse
D) Femoral pulse
Rationale: The dorsalis pedis pulse is located on the dorsum of the foot, just lateral
to the prominent extensor tendon of the big toe.
14. The nurse is using the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) to assess a client. What three
responses are evaluated by this scale?
A) Eye opening, motor response, verbal response
B) Pupillary reaction, motor response, speech clarity
C) Orientation, memory, calculation ability
D) Reflexes, gait, sensory perception
Rationale: The Glasgow Coma Scale measures neurological status by scoring three
components: eye opening, motor response, and verbal response.
15. A client presents with a body mass index (BMI) of 28.4 kg/m². How should the nurse
classify this weight status category?
A) Underweight
B) Normal weight
C) Overweight
D) Obese
Rationale: BMI classifications are: Underweight (<18.5), Normal (18.5–24.9),
Overweight (25–29.9), and Obese (30 or greater).
16. Which technique involves the nurse tapping the client's skin with short, sharp strokes
to assess underlying structures?
4|Page
Guide | Chamberlain University
Questions and Well Graded Solutions
with Rationales Updated 2026-2027
Master your Health Assessment 1 Final Exam with this comprehensive NR-302 study guide. This
resource features clear explanations of the nursing process (ADPIE), physical examination steps,
and critical therapeutic communication techniques. Review detailed systems updates on
HEENT, Respiratory, Cardiac, and Abdomen assessments. Perfect for Chamberlain University
students seeking accurate practice questions, rationales, and blueprint breakdowns to pass the
final exam on the first try.
1|Page
,1. A nurse is conducting a health history interview. Which action by the nurse
demonstrates an effective therapeutic communication technique?
A) Completing all computer documentation while the client speaks
B) Maintaining frequent eye contact at the client's eye level
C) Offering immediate personal opinions on the client's choices
D) Asking multiple "why" questions regarding the client's habits
Rationale: Maintaining eye contact at eye level demonstrates attentiveness and
builds rapport. Excessive computer use blocks communication. Giving personal
opinions or asking "why" questions can make the client defensive.
2. During an assessment, a client states, "My right knee has been throbbing and aching
for three days." How should the nurse classify this information?
A) Subjective data
B) Objective data
C) Diagnostic data
D) Secondary data
Rationale: Subjective data consists of information provided verbally by the client,
including sensations, feelings, and descriptions of pain. Objective data is measurable
and observable by the practitioner.
3. The nurse obtains a blood pressure reading of 142/92 mmHg on an adult client. This
data is classified as which of the following?
A) Subjective data
B) Objective data
C) Historical data
D) Interpretive data
Rationale: Objective data is signs that can be directly observed, measured, or tested
by the nurse using senses or diagnostic equipment.
4. A nurse is preparing to assess a client's abdomen. In which order should the
physical assessment techniques be performed?
A) Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation
B) Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation
C) Auscultation, Inspection, Palpation, Percussion
D) Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation, Inspection
Rationale: The abdomen is assessed via inspection, auscultation, percussion, and
then palpation. Palpation and percussion are done last because they can alter bowel
sounds and cause false auscultation findings.
5. While assessing a client's skin, the nurse notes a flat, non-palpable skin color
change that measures 0.5 cm in diameter. How should this finding be documented?
A) Macule
B) Papule
C) Nodule
D) Vesicle
Rationale: A macule is a flat, circumscribed, non-palpable skin color change less
than 1 cm in diameter (e.g., a freckle). A papule is elevated and palpable. A vesicle
contains fluid.
2|Page
,6. The nurse is checking a client's capillary refill time. Which of the following results is
considered a normal, healthy finding?
A) 4 seconds
B) 5 seconds
C) Less than 2 seconds
D) Delayed blanching
Rationale: Normal capillary refill time is less than 2 seconds. It indicates adequate
peripheral tissue perfusion. Delayed refill suggests compromised circulation.
7. A nurse is assessing the deep tendon reflexes of a client and notes a normal,
average reflex response. Which score should the nurse document?
A) 0
B) 1+
C) 2+
D) 4+
Rationale: Deep tendon reflexes are graded on a 0 to 4+ scale. A score of 2+
indicates a normal, average, or expected response. 0 is absent, 1+ is diminished,
and 4+ is hyperactive.
8. Which cranial nerve is primarily responsible for the sensation of vision?
A) Cranial Nerve I (Olfactory)
B) Cranial Nerve II (Optic)
C) Cranial Nerve III (Oculomotor)
D) Cranial Nerve IV (Trochlear)
Rationale: Cranial Nerve II (Optic) is responsible for visual acuity and visual fields.
Cranial Nerve I is for smell. Cranial Nerves III and IV control extraocular eye
movements.
9. During an eye assessment, the nurse notes that the client’s pupils constrict when
focusing on a near object after looking at a distant object. What is this phenomenon
called?
A) Direct pupillary reflex
B) Consensual reflex
C) Accommodation
D) Nystagmus
Rationale: Accommodation is the adaptation of the eye for near vision, characterized
by pupillary constriction and convergence of the eyeballs.
10. The nurse is performing an ear assessment on a 25-year-old adult. To properly
visualize the tympanic membrane with an otoscope, how should the nurse
manipulate the pinna?
A) Pull the pinna up and back
B) Pull the pinna straight back
C) Pull the pinna down and back
D) Pull the pinna forward and down
Rationale: For adults and children over 3 years old, the pinna is pulled up and back
to straighten the external auditory canal. For infants and children under 3, it is pulled
down.
3|Page
, 11. A nurse is auscultating a client's breath sounds over the peripheral lung fields. The
sounds heard are soft, low-pitched, with inspiration lasting longer than expiration.
How should these sounds be documented?
A) Bronchial sounds
B) Bronchovesicular sounds
C) Vesicular sounds
D) Tracheal sounds
Rationale: Vesicular breath sounds are soft, low-pitched, and heard over most of the
peripheral lung fields. Inspiration is longer than expiration.
12. The nurse hears high-pitched, scratchy, scraping sounds while auscultating the left
lower sternal border of a client who has pericarditis. What is this sound?
A) S3 heart sound
B) S4 heart sound
C) Pericardial friction rub
D) Midsystolic click
Rationale: A pericardial friction rub is a high-pitched, scratchy sound produced by
inflammation of the pericardial sac, best heard with the diaphragm at the left lower
sternal border.
13. Which of the following pulses is located on the dorsum of the foot, lateral to the
extensor tendon of the great toe?
A) Posterior tibial pulse
B) Dorsalis pedis pulse
C) Popliteal pulse
D) Femoral pulse
Rationale: The dorsalis pedis pulse is located on the dorsum of the foot, just lateral
to the prominent extensor tendon of the big toe.
14. The nurse is using the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) to assess a client. What three
responses are evaluated by this scale?
A) Eye opening, motor response, verbal response
B) Pupillary reaction, motor response, speech clarity
C) Orientation, memory, calculation ability
D) Reflexes, gait, sensory perception
Rationale: The Glasgow Coma Scale measures neurological status by scoring three
components: eye opening, motor response, and verbal response.
15. A client presents with a body mass index (BMI) of 28.4 kg/m². How should the nurse
classify this weight status category?
A) Underweight
B) Normal weight
C) Overweight
D) Obese
Rationale: BMI classifications are: Underweight (<18.5), Normal (18.5–24.9),
Overweight (25–29.9), and Obese (30 or greater).
16. Which technique involves the nurse tapping the client's skin with short, sharp strokes
to assess underlying structures?
4|Page
