2026 ATI RN
COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR
RETAKE EXAM
700+ QUESTIONS BANK
(NGN-STYLE QUESTIONS & CASE SCENARIOS)
Answers with detailed Rationale
What You’ll Get:
• EACH SET HAS 180 questions
• quick review
• Printable, easy-to-study PDF
Not affiliated with ATI, VATI or NCLEX. For study purposes only.
,Table of Contents
SET (1)..........................................................................2
SET (2)......................................................................132
SET (3)......................................................................207
SET (4)......................................................................313
SET (1)
Question 1: IV Infusion Pump Safety
A nurse is preparing to initiate intravenous fluids via infusion pump for a client.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Obtain a surge protector that can accommodate the pump and several other
appliances
B. Verify that the extension cord for the pump is ungrounded
C. Report the pump has a frayed cord and proceed with the infusion
D. Check the expiration date on the safety inspection sticker of the pump
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
D (Correct): Safety inspection stickers indicate the pump has been tested
and calibrated according to facility standards. Using equipment past its
inspection date risks inaccurate infusion rates and patient harm.
A (Incorrect): Surge protectors are not recommended for medical equipment;
they can fail and interrupt critical therapy.
B (Incorrect): Ungrounded cords are unsafe and violate electrical safety
standards; all medical equipment must be grounded.
, C (Incorrect): A frayed cord is an electrical hazard; the pump must be
removed from service immediately, not used.
Key Concept: Medical equipment safety: Regular inspection, maintenance, and
immediate removal of damaged equipment are essential for patient safety. Never use
equipment with expired calibration or physical damage.
Question 2: Implanted Port Access
A nurse is caring for a client who has an implanted venous access port. Which of
the following should the nurse use to access the port?
A. A noncoring needle
B. An angiocatheter
C. A butterfly needle
D. A 25-gauge needle
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
A (Correct): A noncoring (Huber) needle has a deflected tip that pierces the
silicone septum of the port without cutting out a core of material. This
preserves the septum integrity for thousands of accesses.
B (Incorrect): An angiocatheter is for peripheral IV insertion, not port access.
C (Incorrect): A butterfly needle is for short-term peripheral access or scalp
veins in infants, not implanted ports.
D (Incorrect): A standard 25-gauge needle cores the septum, causing leakage
and damage to the port.
Key Concept: Port-a-cath care: Use Huber needles only, assess for blood return
before each use, flush with heparin or saline per protocol after use, and rotate needle
insertion sites on the septum.
Question 3: Medication Discrepancy
,A nurse is conducting an initial assessment of a client and notices a discrepancy
between the client's current IV infusion and the information received during the
shift report. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Contact the charge nurse to see if the prescription was changed
B. Complete an incident report and place it in the client's medical record
C. Submit a written warning for the nurse involved in the incident
D. Compare the current infusion with the prescription in the client's medication record
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
D (Correct): The first step in resolving a discrepancy is to verify against the
original prescription in the medication record. This determines if the current
infusion is correct or incorrect before taking further action.
A (Incorrect): Contacting the charge nurse is premature; verify the prescription
first to determine if there's actually an error.
B (Incorrect): Incident reports are not placed in the medical record; they are
separate quality improvement documents. Also, complete only after confirming
an error occurred.
C (Incorrect): Blame and punishment are inappropriate; focus on patient
safety and system improvement.
Key Concept: Medication error prevention: When in doubt, verify against the
original order. Use the "five rights" and independent double-check for high-risk
medications.
Question 4: End-of-Life Communication
A nurse is caring for a client who is near the end of life and is on complete bed
rest. The client states that he needs to have a bowel movement, and the nurse
offers a bed pan. The client states, "I've always used the bathroom." Which of the
following responses should the nurse make?
A. "Tell me what concerns you have about using a bed pan."
B. "Make sure to use nearby furniture to support yourself when walking to the
bathroom."
,C. "I will have the physical therapist ambulate you to the bathroom."
D. "You have to use the bed pan for your own safety."
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
A (Correct): Therapeutic communication involves exploring the client's
feelings and validating concerns. This open-ended question allows the nurse
to understand the underlying issue (dignity, independence, fear) and
collaborate on solutions.
B (Incorrect): Unsafe—client is on complete bed rest and at high fall risk.
C (Incorrect): PT consultation is inappropriate for an end-of-life client on bed
rest with an immediate toileting need.
D (Incorrect): Authoritarian and dismissive; violates client autonomy and
therapeutic relationship principles.
Key Concept: End-of-life care priorities: Maintain dignity, autonomy, and comfort.
Use active listening and empathetic communication. Explore alternatives (commode
chair, privacy measures) that honor client preferences when safe.
Question 5: Fire Evacuation Priority
A nurse is providing an in-service about client evacuation during a fire. Which of
the following clients should the nurse instruct the staff to evacuate first?
A. A client who uses a wheelchair and is confused
B. A client who is bedridden and wears a hearing aid
C. A client who is ambulatory and receiving oxygen
D. A client who has a fracture and is in balance suspension traction
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
C (Correct): RACE protocol: Rescue (ambulatory clients first), Alarm, Confine,
Extinguish/Evacuate. Ambulatory clients can walk out independently but need
, guidance first due to oxygen explosion risk (turn off O₂, remove cannula).
Evacuating them first clears the way for rescuing less mobile clients.
A (Incorrect): Wheelchair-bound, confused clients require assistance and are
evacuated second (after ambulatory).
B (Incorrect): Bedridden clients require significant assistance or rescue
equipment; evacuated after ambulatory and wheelchair clients.
D (Incorrect): Traction requires specialized equipment to move; may need to
be left for last or protected in place depending on fire location.
Key Concept: Fire evacuation priority: Ambulatory → Wheelchair → Bedridden (last).
Horizontal evacuation (same floor, behind fire doors) is preferred over vertical
evacuation (stairs).
Question 6: Pneumothorax Assessment
A nurse is assessing a client who has a possible right pneumothorax. Which of
the following findings should the nurse expect?
A. Reduced right-sided breath sounds
B. Intercostal retractions
C. High-pitched stridor
D. Paradoxical chest movement
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
A (Correct): In pneumothorax, air in the pleural space causes lung collapse
and reduced or absent breath sounds on the affected side. This is the classic
finding.
B (Incorrect): Intercostal retractions indicate respiratory distress from airway
obstruction or severe hypoxemia, not specific to pneumothorax.
C (Incorrect): Stridor indicates upper airway obstruction (laryngeal edema,
foreign body).
D (Incorrect): Paradoxical chest movement (flail chest) occurs with multiple
rib fractures, not simple pneumothorax.
,Key Concept: Pneumothorax triad: Sudden chest pain, dyspnea, and reduced
breath sounds. Tension pneumothorax adds hypotension, JVD, and tracheal
deviation—requires immediate needle decompression.
Question 7: Post-Liver Biopsy Positioning
A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a liver biopsy. In
which of the following positions should the nurse place the client immediately
following the procedure?
A. Prone
B. Trendelenburg
C. High-Fowler's
D. Right lateral
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
D (Correct): Right lateral position with a pillow or rolled towel under the
right costal margin compresses the liver biopsy site against the chest wall,
promoting hemostasis and reducing bleeding risk.
A (Incorrect): Prone position compresses the abdomen and is uncomfortable
post-procedure; doesn't target the biopsy site.
B (Incorrect): Trendelenburg increases intracranial and intra-abdominal
pressure; contraindicated.
C (Incorrect): High-Fowler's doesn't provide site compression and may
increase shear stress on the liver.
Key Concept: Liver biopsy complications: Bleeding (most common),
pneumothorax, bile peritonitis. Position on right side for 2 hours post-procedure,
bed rest for 4-6 hours, monitor VS and pain.
Question 8: Herbal Supplement Contraindication
,A nurse is caring for a client who states he recently purchased lavender oil to use
when he gets the flu. The nurse should recognize which of the following findings
as a potential contraindication for using lavender?
A. The client has a history of alcohol use disorder
B. The client has a history of asthma
C. The client takes vitamin C daily
D. The client takes furosemide twice daily
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
B (Correct): Lavender oil (inhaled or topical) can trigger bronchospasm in
clients with asthma or respiratory sensitivities. Essential oils are volatile
organic compounds that irritate airways.
A (Incorrect): No known interaction between lavender and alcohol.
C (Incorrect): No interaction with vitamin C.
D (Incorrect): No interaction with furosemide.
Key Concept: Herbal safety: Essential oils are not benign. Tea tree and lavender
oils have estrogenic effects (gynecomastia in prepubertal boys). Peppermint oil can
worsen GERD. Always assess for allergies and respiratory conditions.
Question 9: Post-Gastrectomy Teaching
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client following a total gastrectomy.
The nurse should instruct the client about which of the following medications?
A. Ranitidine
B. Vitamin B12
C. Vitamin K
D. Metoclopramide
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
, B (Correct): The stomach produces intrinsic factor, which is essential for
vitamin B12 absorption in the ileum. Total gastrectomy eliminates intrinsic
factor production, causing pernicious anemia. Lifelong B12 injections (or
high-dose oral/sublingual) are required.
A (Incorrect): Ranitidine (H2 blocker) is irrelevant without a stomach; also
largely discontinued due to NDMA contamination.
C (Incorrect): Vitamin K is absorbed in the small intestine and produced by gut
bacteria; not affected by gastrectomy.
D (Incorrect): Metoclopramide is for gastroparesis or GERD; may be used
short-term but not the lifelong essential.
Key Concept: Post-gastrectomy complications: Dumping syndrome, pernicious
anemia, malabsorption of iron and calcium, osteoporosis. Dietary modifications:
small frequent meals, low simple sugars, protein with each meal.
Question 10: De-escalation Techniques
A nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about caring for clients in the
emergency department. Which of the following actions should the nurse include
when teaching about interacting with a client who is aggravated, pacing, and
speaking loudly?
A. Initiate seclusion protocol
B. Use a face shield with a mask when providing care to the client
C. Tell the client, "You seem to be very upset."
D. Engage the panic alarm
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
C (Correct): Therapeutic de-escalation involves acknowledging emotions
and using calm, non-threatening communication. This validates the client's
feelings without escalating aggression.
A (Incorrect): Seclusion is a last resort for imminent violence, not for agitation
alone.
, B (Incorrect): Face shields escalate perceived threat and are unnecessary
unless spitting or bodily fluids are anticipated.
D (Incorrect): Panic alarms are for emergencies; premature activation
escalates the situation.
Key Concept: De-escalation principles: Maintain calm demeanor, respect personal
space, use non-threatening body language, listen actively, offer choices. Only
restrain or seclude when imminent danger exists.
Question 11: Basal Body Temperature Method
A nurse is teaching a client about family planning using the basal body
temperature method. Which of the following instructions should the nurse
include in the teaching?
A. "Take your temperature immediately after waking and before getting out of bed."
B. "Take your temperature within 30 minutes after your first morning void."
C. "Take your temperature 1 hour after getting out of bed."
D. "Take your temperature every night before going to bed."
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
A (Correct): Basal body temperature (BBT) is the lowest body temperature
during rest. It must be measured immediately upon waking, before any
activity (talking, getting up, drinking) to be accurate. Ovulation causes a 0.5-1°F
rise due to progesterone.
B, C, D (Incorrect): Any activity increases metabolic rate and raises
temperature, invalidating the reading.
Key Concept: BBT method limitations: Requires daily consistency, only confirms
ovulation after it occurs (not predictive), affected by illness, stress, alcohol, shift
work. Best used with cervical mucus monitoring (symptothermal method).
Question 12: Tuberculin Skin Test Interpretation
COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR
RETAKE EXAM
700+ QUESTIONS BANK
(NGN-STYLE QUESTIONS & CASE SCENARIOS)
Answers with detailed Rationale
What You’ll Get:
• EACH SET HAS 180 questions
• quick review
• Printable, easy-to-study PDF
Not affiliated with ATI, VATI or NCLEX. For study purposes only.
,Table of Contents
SET (1)..........................................................................2
SET (2)......................................................................132
SET (3)......................................................................207
SET (4)......................................................................313
SET (1)
Question 1: IV Infusion Pump Safety
A nurse is preparing to initiate intravenous fluids via infusion pump for a client.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Obtain a surge protector that can accommodate the pump and several other
appliances
B. Verify that the extension cord for the pump is ungrounded
C. Report the pump has a frayed cord and proceed with the infusion
D. Check the expiration date on the safety inspection sticker of the pump
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
D (Correct): Safety inspection stickers indicate the pump has been tested
and calibrated according to facility standards. Using equipment past its
inspection date risks inaccurate infusion rates and patient harm.
A (Incorrect): Surge protectors are not recommended for medical equipment;
they can fail and interrupt critical therapy.
B (Incorrect): Ungrounded cords are unsafe and violate electrical safety
standards; all medical equipment must be grounded.
, C (Incorrect): A frayed cord is an electrical hazard; the pump must be
removed from service immediately, not used.
Key Concept: Medical equipment safety: Regular inspection, maintenance, and
immediate removal of damaged equipment are essential for patient safety. Never use
equipment with expired calibration or physical damage.
Question 2: Implanted Port Access
A nurse is caring for a client who has an implanted venous access port. Which of
the following should the nurse use to access the port?
A. A noncoring needle
B. An angiocatheter
C. A butterfly needle
D. A 25-gauge needle
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
A (Correct): A noncoring (Huber) needle has a deflected tip that pierces the
silicone septum of the port without cutting out a core of material. This
preserves the septum integrity for thousands of accesses.
B (Incorrect): An angiocatheter is for peripheral IV insertion, not port access.
C (Incorrect): A butterfly needle is for short-term peripheral access or scalp
veins in infants, not implanted ports.
D (Incorrect): A standard 25-gauge needle cores the septum, causing leakage
and damage to the port.
Key Concept: Port-a-cath care: Use Huber needles only, assess for blood return
before each use, flush with heparin or saline per protocol after use, and rotate needle
insertion sites on the septum.
Question 3: Medication Discrepancy
,A nurse is conducting an initial assessment of a client and notices a discrepancy
between the client's current IV infusion and the information received during the
shift report. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Contact the charge nurse to see if the prescription was changed
B. Complete an incident report and place it in the client's medical record
C. Submit a written warning for the nurse involved in the incident
D. Compare the current infusion with the prescription in the client's medication record
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
D (Correct): The first step in resolving a discrepancy is to verify against the
original prescription in the medication record. This determines if the current
infusion is correct or incorrect before taking further action.
A (Incorrect): Contacting the charge nurse is premature; verify the prescription
first to determine if there's actually an error.
B (Incorrect): Incident reports are not placed in the medical record; they are
separate quality improvement documents. Also, complete only after confirming
an error occurred.
C (Incorrect): Blame and punishment are inappropriate; focus on patient
safety and system improvement.
Key Concept: Medication error prevention: When in doubt, verify against the
original order. Use the "five rights" and independent double-check for high-risk
medications.
Question 4: End-of-Life Communication
A nurse is caring for a client who is near the end of life and is on complete bed
rest. The client states that he needs to have a bowel movement, and the nurse
offers a bed pan. The client states, "I've always used the bathroom." Which of the
following responses should the nurse make?
A. "Tell me what concerns you have about using a bed pan."
B. "Make sure to use nearby furniture to support yourself when walking to the
bathroom."
,C. "I will have the physical therapist ambulate you to the bathroom."
D. "You have to use the bed pan for your own safety."
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
A (Correct): Therapeutic communication involves exploring the client's
feelings and validating concerns. This open-ended question allows the nurse
to understand the underlying issue (dignity, independence, fear) and
collaborate on solutions.
B (Incorrect): Unsafe—client is on complete bed rest and at high fall risk.
C (Incorrect): PT consultation is inappropriate for an end-of-life client on bed
rest with an immediate toileting need.
D (Incorrect): Authoritarian and dismissive; violates client autonomy and
therapeutic relationship principles.
Key Concept: End-of-life care priorities: Maintain dignity, autonomy, and comfort.
Use active listening and empathetic communication. Explore alternatives (commode
chair, privacy measures) that honor client preferences when safe.
Question 5: Fire Evacuation Priority
A nurse is providing an in-service about client evacuation during a fire. Which of
the following clients should the nurse instruct the staff to evacuate first?
A. A client who uses a wheelchair and is confused
B. A client who is bedridden and wears a hearing aid
C. A client who is ambulatory and receiving oxygen
D. A client who has a fracture and is in balance suspension traction
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
C (Correct): RACE protocol: Rescue (ambulatory clients first), Alarm, Confine,
Extinguish/Evacuate. Ambulatory clients can walk out independently but need
, guidance first due to oxygen explosion risk (turn off O₂, remove cannula).
Evacuating them first clears the way for rescuing less mobile clients.
A (Incorrect): Wheelchair-bound, confused clients require assistance and are
evacuated second (after ambulatory).
B (Incorrect): Bedridden clients require significant assistance or rescue
equipment; evacuated after ambulatory and wheelchair clients.
D (Incorrect): Traction requires specialized equipment to move; may need to
be left for last or protected in place depending on fire location.
Key Concept: Fire evacuation priority: Ambulatory → Wheelchair → Bedridden (last).
Horizontal evacuation (same floor, behind fire doors) is preferred over vertical
evacuation (stairs).
Question 6: Pneumothorax Assessment
A nurse is assessing a client who has a possible right pneumothorax. Which of
the following findings should the nurse expect?
A. Reduced right-sided breath sounds
B. Intercostal retractions
C. High-pitched stridor
D. Paradoxical chest movement
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
A (Correct): In pneumothorax, air in the pleural space causes lung collapse
and reduced or absent breath sounds on the affected side. This is the classic
finding.
B (Incorrect): Intercostal retractions indicate respiratory distress from airway
obstruction or severe hypoxemia, not specific to pneumothorax.
C (Incorrect): Stridor indicates upper airway obstruction (laryngeal edema,
foreign body).
D (Incorrect): Paradoxical chest movement (flail chest) occurs with multiple
rib fractures, not simple pneumothorax.
,Key Concept: Pneumothorax triad: Sudden chest pain, dyspnea, and reduced
breath sounds. Tension pneumothorax adds hypotension, JVD, and tracheal
deviation—requires immediate needle decompression.
Question 7: Post-Liver Biopsy Positioning
A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a liver biopsy. In
which of the following positions should the nurse place the client immediately
following the procedure?
A. Prone
B. Trendelenburg
C. High-Fowler's
D. Right lateral
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
D (Correct): Right lateral position with a pillow or rolled towel under the
right costal margin compresses the liver biopsy site against the chest wall,
promoting hemostasis and reducing bleeding risk.
A (Incorrect): Prone position compresses the abdomen and is uncomfortable
post-procedure; doesn't target the biopsy site.
B (Incorrect): Trendelenburg increases intracranial and intra-abdominal
pressure; contraindicated.
C (Incorrect): High-Fowler's doesn't provide site compression and may
increase shear stress on the liver.
Key Concept: Liver biopsy complications: Bleeding (most common),
pneumothorax, bile peritonitis. Position on right side for 2 hours post-procedure,
bed rest for 4-6 hours, monitor VS and pain.
Question 8: Herbal Supplement Contraindication
,A nurse is caring for a client who states he recently purchased lavender oil to use
when he gets the flu. The nurse should recognize which of the following findings
as a potential contraindication for using lavender?
A. The client has a history of alcohol use disorder
B. The client has a history of asthma
C. The client takes vitamin C daily
D. The client takes furosemide twice daily
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
B (Correct): Lavender oil (inhaled or topical) can trigger bronchospasm in
clients with asthma or respiratory sensitivities. Essential oils are volatile
organic compounds that irritate airways.
A (Incorrect): No known interaction between lavender and alcohol.
C (Incorrect): No interaction with vitamin C.
D (Incorrect): No interaction with furosemide.
Key Concept: Herbal safety: Essential oils are not benign. Tea tree and lavender
oils have estrogenic effects (gynecomastia in prepubertal boys). Peppermint oil can
worsen GERD. Always assess for allergies and respiratory conditions.
Question 9: Post-Gastrectomy Teaching
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client following a total gastrectomy.
The nurse should instruct the client about which of the following medications?
A. Ranitidine
B. Vitamin B12
C. Vitamin K
D. Metoclopramide
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
, B (Correct): The stomach produces intrinsic factor, which is essential for
vitamin B12 absorption in the ileum. Total gastrectomy eliminates intrinsic
factor production, causing pernicious anemia. Lifelong B12 injections (or
high-dose oral/sublingual) are required.
A (Incorrect): Ranitidine (H2 blocker) is irrelevant without a stomach; also
largely discontinued due to NDMA contamination.
C (Incorrect): Vitamin K is absorbed in the small intestine and produced by gut
bacteria; not affected by gastrectomy.
D (Incorrect): Metoclopramide is for gastroparesis or GERD; may be used
short-term but not the lifelong essential.
Key Concept: Post-gastrectomy complications: Dumping syndrome, pernicious
anemia, malabsorption of iron and calcium, osteoporosis. Dietary modifications:
small frequent meals, low simple sugars, protein with each meal.
Question 10: De-escalation Techniques
A nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about caring for clients in the
emergency department. Which of the following actions should the nurse include
when teaching about interacting with a client who is aggravated, pacing, and
speaking loudly?
A. Initiate seclusion protocol
B. Use a face shield with a mask when providing care to the client
C. Tell the client, "You seem to be very upset."
D. Engage the panic alarm
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
C (Correct): Therapeutic de-escalation involves acknowledging emotions
and using calm, non-threatening communication. This validates the client's
feelings without escalating aggression.
A (Incorrect): Seclusion is a last resort for imminent violence, not for agitation
alone.
, B (Incorrect): Face shields escalate perceived threat and are unnecessary
unless spitting or bodily fluids are anticipated.
D (Incorrect): Panic alarms are for emergencies; premature activation
escalates the situation.
Key Concept: De-escalation principles: Maintain calm demeanor, respect personal
space, use non-threatening body language, listen actively, offer choices. Only
restrain or seclude when imminent danger exists.
Question 11: Basal Body Temperature Method
A nurse is teaching a client about family planning using the basal body
temperature method. Which of the following instructions should the nurse
include in the teaching?
A. "Take your temperature immediately after waking and before getting out of bed."
B. "Take your temperature within 30 minutes after your first morning void."
C. "Take your temperature 1 hour after getting out of bed."
D. "Take your temperature every night before going to bed."
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
A (Correct): Basal body temperature (BBT) is the lowest body temperature
during rest. It must be measured immediately upon waking, before any
activity (talking, getting up, drinking) to be accurate. Ovulation causes a 0.5-1°F
rise due to progesterone.
B, C, D (Incorrect): Any activity increases metabolic rate and raises
temperature, invalidating the reading.
Key Concept: BBT method limitations: Requires daily consistency, only confirms
ovulation after it occurs (not predictive), affected by illness, stress, alcohol, shift
work. Best used with cervical mucus monitoring (symptothermal method).
Question 12: Tuberculin Skin Test Interpretation
