MDC 3 Final Exam Questions,
Answers & Rationales for 2026
1. A client with major depressive disorder is prescribed fluoxetine. Which statement by the client
indicates a need for further teaching?
A. "I should take this medication with food to avoid an upset stomach."
B. "I might not see the full effects of this medication for several weeks."
C. "I can stop taking this medication as soon as I start feeling better."
D. "I should avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication."
Answer: C. "I can stop taking this medication as soon as I start feeling better."
Rationale:
A. Incorrect. This is a correct statement. Taking SSRIs with food can help minimize gastrointestinal side
effects.
B. Incorrect. This is a correct statement. SSRIs typically take 4-6 weeks to reach their full therapeutic
effect.
C. Correct. Abruptly stopping SSRIs can lead to discontinuation syndrome and a relapse of depressive
symptoms. Medication should be tapered under a provider's supervision.
,D. Incorrect. This is a correct statement. Alcohol can potentiate the sedative effects of SSRIs and should
be avoided.
2. A patient with bipolar disorder is exhibiting manic behavior and has not slept in two days. Which
nursing intervention is the priority?
A. Encourage the patient to participate in group therapy.
B. Provide a high-calorie, high-protein diet.
C. Provide a quiet, structured environment with decreased stimulation.
D. Assign the patient to a private room near the nurses' station.
Answer: C. Provide a quiet, structured environment with decreased stimulation.
Rationale:
A. Incorrect. During acute mania, the patient's ability to focus and participate in group therapy is
severely impaired. A quiet, structured environment is more appropriate initially.
B. Incorrect. While nutrition is important, manic patients often have decreased appetite and may be too
hyperactive to sit for meals. High-calorie, high-protein finger foods are a better intervention, but the
priority is reducing stimulation.
C. Correct. Decreasing environmental stimuli (light, noise, people) is crucial to reduce manic behavior
and prevent exacerbation of symptoms.
D. Incorrect. Placing the patient near the nurses' station might be considered for safety, but a private
room with decreased stimulation is the priority. A private room can lead to isolation, and a room near
the nurses' station may increase stimulation.
3. A nurse is educating a client with schizophrenia about the importance of medication adherence for
their antipsychotic medication. What is the best rationale for this teaching?
A. To ensure the client doesn't experience any side effects.
B. To decrease the risk of rehospitalization and promote symptom management.
C. To allow the client to function independently in all aspects of daily living.
,D. To cure the client of their schizophrenic disorder.
Answer: B. To decrease the risk of rehospitalization and promote symptom management.
Rationale:
A. Incorrect. All medications have the potential for side effects; adherence does not eliminate this risk.
B. Correct. Medication adherence is the single most important factor in preventing relapse and
rehospitalization in clients with schizophrenia, as it helps manage positive and negative symptoms.
C. Incorrect. While medications help manage symptoms, they do not guarantee complete independence
in all areas of functioning.
D. Incorrect. Schizophrenia is a chronic condition; there is no cure. Medication manages the symptoms
but does not cure the disease.
4. A client is brought to the emergency department with a benzodiazepine overdose. Which assessment
finding is the priority for the nurse to monitor?
A. Hyperthermia
B. Respiratory depression
C. Tachycardia
D. Seizure activity
Answer: B. Respiratory depression
Rationale:
A. Incorrect. Hyperthermia is a symptom of serotonin syndrome, which is not a typical effect of
benzodiazepine overdose.
B. Correct. Benzodiazepines are central nervous system (CNS) depressants. The most life-threatening
effect of an overdose is respiratory depression, leading to respiratory arrest.
, C. Incorrect. Benzodiazepine overdose typically causes bradycardia, not tachycardia.
D. Incorrect. Paradoxically, withdrawal from benzodiazepines can cause seizures, but the overdose itself
does not cause them; it causes CNS depression.
5. A nurse is caring for a client in the emergency department who is experiencing severe alcohol
withdrawal. Which medication does the nurse anticipate administering to prevent a life-threatening
complication?
A. Naloxone
B. Naltrexone
C. Chlordiazepoxide
D. Disulfiram
Answer: C. Chlordiazepoxide
Rationale:
A. Incorrect. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used for opioid overdoses.
B. Incorrect. Naltrexone is used to reduce cravings for alcohol and opioids, not for acute withdrawal.
C. Correct. Chlordiazepoxide is a benzodiazepine used to prevent severe complications of alcohol
withdrawal, such as seizures and delirium tremens, by managing CNS hyperexcitability.
D. Incorrect. Disulfiram is an aversive agent that causes a reaction if alcohol is consumed; it is not used
for withdrawal management.
6. A patient with antisocial personality disorder is manipulative and demanding. Which approach by the
nurse is most appropriate?
A. Accepting the patient's behavior as a manifestation of the illness.
B. Setting firm, consistent, and non-punitive limits on behavior.
Answers & Rationales for 2026
1. A client with major depressive disorder is prescribed fluoxetine. Which statement by the client
indicates a need for further teaching?
A. "I should take this medication with food to avoid an upset stomach."
B. "I might not see the full effects of this medication for several weeks."
C. "I can stop taking this medication as soon as I start feeling better."
D. "I should avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication."
Answer: C. "I can stop taking this medication as soon as I start feeling better."
Rationale:
A. Incorrect. This is a correct statement. Taking SSRIs with food can help minimize gastrointestinal side
effects.
B. Incorrect. This is a correct statement. SSRIs typically take 4-6 weeks to reach their full therapeutic
effect.
C. Correct. Abruptly stopping SSRIs can lead to discontinuation syndrome and a relapse of depressive
symptoms. Medication should be tapered under a provider's supervision.
,D. Incorrect. This is a correct statement. Alcohol can potentiate the sedative effects of SSRIs and should
be avoided.
2. A patient with bipolar disorder is exhibiting manic behavior and has not slept in two days. Which
nursing intervention is the priority?
A. Encourage the patient to participate in group therapy.
B. Provide a high-calorie, high-protein diet.
C. Provide a quiet, structured environment with decreased stimulation.
D. Assign the patient to a private room near the nurses' station.
Answer: C. Provide a quiet, structured environment with decreased stimulation.
Rationale:
A. Incorrect. During acute mania, the patient's ability to focus and participate in group therapy is
severely impaired. A quiet, structured environment is more appropriate initially.
B. Incorrect. While nutrition is important, manic patients often have decreased appetite and may be too
hyperactive to sit for meals. High-calorie, high-protein finger foods are a better intervention, but the
priority is reducing stimulation.
C. Correct. Decreasing environmental stimuli (light, noise, people) is crucial to reduce manic behavior
and prevent exacerbation of symptoms.
D. Incorrect. Placing the patient near the nurses' station might be considered for safety, but a private
room with decreased stimulation is the priority. A private room can lead to isolation, and a room near
the nurses' station may increase stimulation.
3. A nurse is educating a client with schizophrenia about the importance of medication adherence for
their antipsychotic medication. What is the best rationale for this teaching?
A. To ensure the client doesn't experience any side effects.
B. To decrease the risk of rehospitalization and promote symptom management.
C. To allow the client to function independently in all aspects of daily living.
,D. To cure the client of their schizophrenic disorder.
Answer: B. To decrease the risk of rehospitalization and promote symptom management.
Rationale:
A. Incorrect. All medications have the potential for side effects; adherence does not eliminate this risk.
B. Correct. Medication adherence is the single most important factor in preventing relapse and
rehospitalization in clients with schizophrenia, as it helps manage positive and negative symptoms.
C. Incorrect. While medications help manage symptoms, they do not guarantee complete independence
in all areas of functioning.
D. Incorrect. Schizophrenia is a chronic condition; there is no cure. Medication manages the symptoms
but does not cure the disease.
4. A client is brought to the emergency department with a benzodiazepine overdose. Which assessment
finding is the priority for the nurse to monitor?
A. Hyperthermia
B. Respiratory depression
C. Tachycardia
D. Seizure activity
Answer: B. Respiratory depression
Rationale:
A. Incorrect. Hyperthermia is a symptom of serotonin syndrome, which is not a typical effect of
benzodiazepine overdose.
B. Correct. Benzodiazepines are central nervous system (CNS) depressants. The most life-threatening
effect of an overdose is respiratory depression, leading to respiratory arrest.
, C. Incorrect. Benzodiazepine overdose typically causes bradycardia, not tachycardia.
D. Incorrect. Paradoxically, withdrawal from benzodiazepines can cause seizures, but the overdose itself
does not cause them; it causes CNS depression.
5. A nurse is caring for a client in the emergency department who is experiencing severe alcohol
withdrawal. Which medication does the nurse anticipate administering to prevent a life-threatening
complication?
A. Naloxone
B. Naltrexone
C. Chlordiazepoxide
D. Disulfiram
Answer: C. Chlordiazepoxide
Rationale:
A. Incorrect. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used for opioid overdoses.
B. Incorrect. Naltrexone is used to reduce cravings for alcohol and opioids, not for acute withdrawal.
C. Correct. Chlordiazepoxide is a benzodiazepine used to prevent severe complications of alcohol
withdrawal, such as seizures and delirium tremens, by managing CNS hyperexcitability.
D. Incorrect. Disulfiram is an aversive agent that causes a reaction if alcohol is consumed; it is not used
for withdrawal management.
6. A patient with antisocial personality disorder is manipulative and demanding. Which approach by the
nurse is most appropriate?
A. Accepting the patient's behavior as a manifestation of the illness.
B. Setting firm, consistent, and non-punitive limits on behavior.
