NSG 3280 Exam 4 Review | Galen College of Nursing

NSG 3280 Exam 4 Review | Galen College of Nursing The organism most commonly associated with pelvic inflammatory disease is: a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae. b. Treponema pallidum. c. Escherichia coli. d. Pseudomonas. A long asymptomatic latent phase is characteristic of which of the following sexually transmitted infections? a. Gonorrhea b. Syphilis c. Chlamydia d. Hepatitis B A painless ulceration called a chancre is a lesion associated with infection by: a. human papillomavirus. b. N. gonorrhoeae. c. C. trachomatis. d. T. pallidum. Which infection can be a risk factor for cervical cancer? a. Human papillomavirus b. Molluscum contagiosum c. Granuloma inguinale d. Chancroid Which of the following infections is asymptomatic and self-limited and does not require therapy? a. Syphilis b. Nongonococcal cervicitis c. Gonorrhea d. Molluscum contagiosum The first choice of treatment for the management of syphilis is: a. penicillin G. b. doxycycline. c. antiviral agents. d. antimicrobial agents. A 23-year-old male presents with urethritis, dysuria, and purulent urethral discharge. The suspected diagnosis would be: a. gonorrhea. b. urinary tract infection. c. Chlamydia. d. syphilis. Transmission of Chlamydia during birth may result in -, or infection of the eyes in the newborn. a. neonatal jaundice b. ophthalmia neonatorum c. neonatal conjunctivitis d. erythema neonatorum The Centers for Disease Control estimate that there are - new sexually transmitted infections every year. a. 580,000 b. 1.7 million c. 20 million d. 17 billion The initial incubation period of syphilis lasts for - a. 2-3 days b. 10-90 days c. 3-6 weeks d. 40 years Herpes lesions are fluid-filled vesicles that appear - days after infection. a. 1 to 2 b. 3 to 7 c. 7 to 10 d. 10 to 14 Central nervous system degeneration, blindness, and paresis are associated with untreated a. HSV. b. LGV. c. syphilis. d. gonorrhea. What systemic infections are potentially transmitted by sexual contact? (Select all that apply.) a. Cytomegalovirus b. Hepatitis A c. Hepatitis B d. HIV e. Herpes simplex virus A patient diagnosed with a micropenis must be evaluated for: a. endocrine disorders. b. vascular abnormalities. c. female sex assignment. d. epispadias. Erectile dysfunction is rarely because of: a. drug side effects. b. psychological factors. c. primary causes. d. vascular diseases. Phimosis is a disorder of the penis characterized by a. sustained, painful erection. b. inability to retract the foreskin. c. inability to achieve erection. d. malpositioning of the urinary meatus. Cryptorchidism is: a. associated with an increased incidence of testicular cancer. b. an extremely uncommon disorder. c. rarely treated. d. a consequence of gonorrhea. Sudden, severe testicular pain is indicative of: a. prostatitis. b. testicular cancer. c. testicular torsion. d. epididymitis. A progressive decrease in the force of the urinary stream, dribbling of urine, and difficulty initiating the urinary stream are characteristics of: a. prostatitis. b. urinary calculi. c. bladder carcinoma. d. prostatic enlargement. The condition in which the urethra opens on the dorsal aspect of the penis is known as: a. hypospadias. b. urethral fistula. c. epispadias. d. priapism. A patient has cancer of the penis that involves only the shaft. When asked about prognosis, what statement by the nurse is best? a. I am not able to provide that information based on this result. b. With the cancer limited to the shaft, the 5-year survival rate is 65% to 90%. c. This type of cancer is so rare, no one really knows about prognosis. d. All cases of penile cancer have very poor outcomes. A patient presenting with a urethral stricture may experience which symptoms? (Select all that apply.) a. Decreased urinary stream b. Urethral discharge c. Infection d. Urine retention e. Inability to retract the glans of the penis Which medication classes does the nurse educate men on for the treatment of erectile dysfunction (ED)? (Select all that apply.) a. Beta-blockers b. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors c. Anti-convulsants d. Phosphodiesterase inhibitors e. Papaverine phentolamine Which medications can be prescribed for the treatment of premature ejaculation? (Select all that apply.) a. Clomipramine b. Paroxetine c. Lidocaine/prilocaine cream d. Sildenafil e. Tadalafil Which of the following are correctable causes of male infertility? (Select all that apply.) a. Cryptorchidism b. Varicocele c. Retractile testes d. Bilateral testicular atrophy e. Ductal obstruction Uterine prolapse is caused by a relaxation of the: a. cardinal ligaments. b. abdominal organs. c. cervix. d. vaginal musculature. Endometriosis is a condition in which: a. the endometrium sloughs continuously. b. ectopic endometrial tissue is present. c. an abnormal Pap smear is diagnostic. d. the endometrium proliferates and does not shed. A change occurring in a pregnant woman that is indicative of a potential disorder is: a. increased metabolic rate. b. 30% to 40% increase in cardiac output. c. increased oxygen consumption. d. increased urinary protein. Absence of menstruation is called: a. amenorrhea. b. metrorrhagia. c. menorrhagia. d. dysmenorrhea. Abnormal uterine bleeding in perimenopausal women is caused by: a. endometrial inflammation. b. reproductive tract malignancies. c. endometrial fibroid tumors. d. absent or diminished levels of progesterone. What reproductive tract disorder is most likely to be associated with urinary incontinence? a. Rectocele b. Menopause c. Cystocele d. Cervicitis It is true that fibrocystic breast disease: a. commonly progresses to breast cancer. b. may be exacerbated by methylxanthines. c. is characterized by painless breast lumps. d. is a contraindication for progesterone birth control pills. A potential risk factor for breast cancer includes: a. a history of fibrocystic breast disease. b. more than three pregnancies prior to age 35. c. malnourishment. d. early menarche and late first pregnancy. A 32-year-old female complaining of severe pain with menstruation and inability to participate in her routine household activities is likely experiencing: a. dysmenorrhea. b. menorrhagia. c. amenorrhea. d. metrorrhagia. Excessive vomiting in pregnant women is known as: a. placenta previa. b. hyperemesis gravidarum. c. abruptio placentae. d. spontaneous abortion. The expected treatment of a pregnant woman with hyperemesis gravidarum is: a. immediate cesarean section. b. seizure prophylaxis. c. surgical removal of uterine contents. d. intravenous therapy. Treatment of a uterine prolapse may involve the insertion of a(n) - to hold the uterus in place. a. catheter. b. IUD. c. pessary. d. endopelvic mesh implant. Cervical cancer can be detected in the early, curable stage by the - test. a. Papanicolaou b. human papillomavirus c. gonorrhoeae d. vaginal pH The most common types of uterine tumors are known as: a. ovarian cysts. b. endometriomas. c. hydatidiform moles. d. leiomyomas. A breast lump that is painless, hard, and unmoving is most likely: a. fibrocystic breast disease. b. fibroadenoma. c. papilloma. d. carcinoma. A 52-year-old female had a surgical procedure in which the breast, lymphatics, and underlying muscle were removed. The procedure performed was a: a. radical mastectomy. b. modified radical mastectomy. c. mastectomy. d. lumpectomy. Infection by - accounts for nearly half of all reported cases of vulvovaginitis. a. Chlamydia trachomatis b. Candida albicans c. Neisseria gonorrhoeae d. Pseudomonas The HPV vaccine is recommended for 11- to 12-year-old girls, but can be administered to girls as young as - years of age. a. 7 b. 8 с. 9 d. 10 Which symptoms would be manifested in a woman diagnosed with pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH)? (Select all that apply.) a. Excessive vomiting b. Proteinuria c. Peripheral edema d. Increased arterial pressure e. Hemorrhage Which pharmacologic treatments may be seen in a patient with breast cancer? (Select all that apply.) a. Estrogen receptor modulators b. Estrogen antagonists c. Anti-inflammatory agents d. Estrogen/progesterone combination therapies e. Antineoplastic agents Characteristics of X-linked (sex-linked) recessive disorders include a. all daughters of affected fathers being carriers. b. boys and girls being equally affected. c. the son of a carrier female having a 25% chance of being affected. d. affected fathers transmitting the gene to all their sons. A fetus is most vulnerable to environmental teratogens during a. birth. b. conception. c. the first trimester. d. the last trimester. Results of biochemical tests indicate an infant has phenylketonuria (PKU). The parents ask what PKU means. Which response indicates the nurse needs to review this information? a. -PKU is an enzyme deficiency resulting in the inability to metabolize b. phenylalanine. b. -PKU is an inborn error of metabolism. c. -PKU results from a chromosome abnormality called nondisjunction. d. -PKU is transmitted as an autosomal-recessive disorder. The parents of a child with PKU are concerned about the risk of transmitting the disorder in future pregnancies. The correct assessment of the risk is : a. each child has a 25% chance of being a carrier. b. each child has a 25% chance of being affected. c. since one child is already affected, the next three children will be unaffected. d. one cannot predict the risk for future pregnancies. Information parents should be given about the consequences of PKU includes a. high dietary phenylalanine may help induce enzyme production. b. PKU is commonly associated with other congenital anomalies. c. failure to avoid phenylalanine results in progressive cognitive impairment. d. cognitive impairment is inevitable. What information does the nurse understand about mitochondrial DNA? a. Mitochondria contain several genes critical for protein metabolism. b. Mitochondrial genes are all of maternal origin. C. Mothers transmit mitochondrial DNA to only daughters. d. Cardiac cell function is most affected by mitochondrial DNA abnormalities. Males are more likely than females to be affected by_ disorders. a. X-linked b. autosomal-dominant C. autosomal-recessive d. chromosomal nondisjunction The primary factor associated with the risk of Down syndrome is: a. family history of heritable diseases. b. exposure to TORCH syndrome organisms. c. maternal alcohol intake. d. maternal age. Cystic fibroid is a single-gene disorder that primarily affects: a. Brain and heart b. kidney and adrenals. c. lungs and pancreas. d. liver and intestine. Huntington disease is often transferred to offspring before a parent knows of the genetic possibility of this disease, because a. symptoms are so mild that they are not recognized. b. symptoms often do not occur until approximately 40 years of age. c. genetic testing for the disease is not possible. d. the genetic alteration is rarely expressed. Huntington disease primarily affects the - system. a. neurologic b. muscular c. gastrointestinal d. endocrine The risk period for maternal rubella infection leading to congenital problems begins: a. prior to conception. b. during the last trimester. c. at birth. d. all through pregnancy. Which of the following are characteristics of Marfan syndrome? (Select all that apply.) a. It is a single-gene disorder. b. It involves alterations in connective tissue. c. It leads to skeletal and joint deformities. d. It leads to short stocky build. e. It results in dangerous cardiovascular disorders. Which of the following would the nurse instruct the pregnant woman to avoid as teratogens? (Select all that apply.) a. Alcohol b. X-rays c. Thalidomide d. Cephalosporin antibiotics e. Zika virus Which vessel normally demonstrates the most rapid blood flow? a. An arteriole b. A capillary c. A venule d. The vena cava The movement of blood through the vascular system is opposed by the force of: a. viscosity. b. the vessel length. c. the vessel radius. d. resistance. Which causes vasoconstriction? a. Norepinephrine b. Calcium channel blocker c. a-Adrenergic antagonist d. Acetylcholine When systemic vascular resistance is significantly decreased, blood flow: a. increases. b. decreases.