CPAN/CAPA Certification
Comprehensive Resource To Help You Ace 2026-2027 Exams
Includes Frequently Tested Questions With ELABORATED
100% Correct COMPLETE SOLUTIONS
Guaranteed Pass First Attempt!! Current Update!!
Instant Download Pdf
1. Which of the following causes an increased risk for prolonged bleeding?
a. Phenytoin
b. Ibuprofen
c. Furosemide
d. Diltiazem - Correct Answer: b. Ibuprofen
2. When caring for a patient who has been given ketamine, it is important for
the perianesthesia nurse to recognize that ketamine:
a. May cause vivid dreams manifested by confusion.
b. Cannot be used in conjunction with benzodiazepines.
c. May cause hypotension and bradycardia.
d. Does not provide analgesia. - Correct Answer: a. May cause vivid
dreams manifested by confusion.
3. A PACU patient who exhibits shivering and a temperature of 32.9 degrees C
(91.2 F) is at risk for:
a. vasodilatation.
b. decreased cardiac output.
c. decreased O2 requirements.
d. hypotension. - Correct Answer: b. decreased cardiac output.
,4. The use of mental images for stress and pain reduction is most effective
when:
a. A family member is present.
b. The nurse describes the scenarios.
c. The patient has a history of chronic pain.
d. The patient actively participates. - Correct Answer: d. The patient
actively participates.
5. A patient routinely taking a thiazide diuretic is at increased risk for:
a. Hypokalemia.
b. Hyperkalemia.
c. Hypocalcemia.
d. Hypercalcemia. - Correct Answer: a. Hypokalemia.
6. When nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are administered to patients
with kidney disease, decreased clearance can occur in cases of:
a. Vascular disease.
b. Adrenal insufficiency.
c. Renal insufficiency.
d. Diabetes mellitus. - Correct Answer: c. Renal insufficiency.
7. Postoperatively, a patient is complaining of a postdural puncture headache,
which is most frequently attributed to:
a. Elevating the head of the bed too soon.
b. History of headaches.
c. Being NPO for a long period preoperatively.
d. The size of the needle used. - Correct Answer: d. The size of the
needle used.
,8. The primary goal in postoperative pain management is to establish a pain
level that is:
a. Manageable without the use of narcotics.
b. Acceptable to the patient.
c. 2 or less on a 0-10 scale.
d. 4 or less on a 0-10 scale. - Correct Answer: b. Acceptable to the
patient.
9. The perianesthesia nurse is aware that a child treated for post extubation
croup with nebulized racemic epinephrine will need to be observed in the
Phase I recovery unit longer, due to:
a. The associated rebound effect.
b. Possible acute hyperkalemia.
c. Delayed onset tachycardia.
d. Delayed onset excitability. - Correct Answer: a. The associated
rebound effect.
10.The perianesthesia nurse is aware that a late symptom of post extubation
laryngeal edema in a pediatric patient is:
a. Tachypnea.
b. Biphasic stridor.
c. Inspiratory stridor.
d. Tachycardia. - Correct Answer: b. Biphasic stridor
11.In Phase I PACU following strabismus repair, the oculocardiac reflex:
a. Is treated with metoprolol.
b. Corrects the deviation.
c. May cause tachycardia.
, d. May cause bradycardia. - Correct Answer: d. May cause
bradycardia
12.What is the minimum age that children develop a reasonably established
ability to discriminate degrees of pain in facial expressions?
a. 2 years
b. 3 years
c. 6 years
d. 8 years - Correct Answer: b. 3 years
13.Following maxillomandibular fixation, which of the following should be
readily available at the patient's bedside?
a. Wire cutters
b. Nasal airway
c. Laryngeal mask airway
d. Tracheostomy kit - Correct Answer: a. Wire cutters
14.Which of the following is a method to test for malignant hyperthermia?
a. Lumbar puncture
b. Bone biopsy
c. Blood test
d. Muscle biopsy - Correct Answer: d. Muscle biopsy
15.Naloxone acts as:
a. Benzodiazepine agonist.
b. Opioid antagonist.
c. Opioid agonist.
d. Benzodiazepine antagonist. - Correct Answer: b. Opioid
antagonist.
Comprehensive Resource To Help You Ace 2026-2027 Exams
Includes Frequently Tested Questions With ELABORATED
100% Correct COMPLETE SOLUTIONS
Guaranteed Pass First Attempt!! Current Update!!
Instant Download Pdf
1. Which of the following causes an increased risk for prolonged bleeding?
a. Phenytoin
b. Ibuprofen
c. Furosemide
d. Diltiazem - Correct Answer: b. Ibuprofen
2. When caring for a patient who has been given ketamine, it is important for
the perianesthesia nurse to recognize that ketamine:
a. May cause vivid dreams manifested by confusion.
b. Cannot be used in conjunction with benzodiazepines.
c. May cause hypotension and bradycardia.
d. Does not provide analgesia. - Correct Answer: a. May cause vivid
dreams manifested by confusion.
3. A PACU patient who exhibits shivering and a temperature of 32.9 degrees C
(91.2 F) is at risk for:
a. vasodilatation.
b. decreased cardiac output.
c. decreased O2 requirements.
d. hypotension. - Correct Answer: b. decreased cardiac output.
,4. The use of mental images for stress and pain reduction is most effective
when:
a. A family member is present.
b. The nurse describes the scenarios.
c. The patient has a history of chronic pain.
d. The patient actively participates. - Correct Answer: d. The patient
actively participates.
5. A patient routinely taking a thiazide diuretic is at increased risk for:
a. Hypokalemia.
b. Hyperkalemia.
c. Hypocalcemia.
d. Hypercalcemia. - Correct Answer: a. Hypokalemia.
6. When nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are administered to patients
with kidney disease, decreased clearance can occur in cases of:
a. Vascular disease.
b. Adrenal insufficiency.
c. Renal insufficiency.
d. Diabetes mellitus. - Correct Answer: c. Renal insufficiency.
7. Postoperatively, a patient is complaining of a postdural puncture headache,
which is most frequently attributed to:
a. Elevating the head of the bed too soon.
b. History of headaches.
c. Being NPO for a long period preoperatively.
d. The size of the needle used. - Correct Answer: d. The size of the
needle used.
,8. The primary goal in postoperative pain management is to establish a pain
level that is:
a. Manageable without the use of narcotics.
b. Acceptable to the patient.
c. 2 or less on a 0-10 scale.
d. 4 or less on a 0-10 scale. - Correct Answer: b. Acceptable to the
patient.
9. The perianesthesia nurse is aware that a child treated for post extubation
croup with nebulized racemic epinephrine will need to be observed in the
Phase I recovery unit longer, due to:
a. The associated rebound effect.
b. Possible acute hyperkalemia.
c. Delayed onset tachycardia.
d. Delayed onset excitability. - Correct Answer: a. The associated
rebound effect.
10.The perianesthesia nurse is aware that a late symptom of post extubation
laryngeal edema in a pediatric patient is:
a. Tachypnea.
b. Biphasic stridor.
c. Inspiratory stridor.
d. Tachycardia. - Correct Answer: b. Biphasic stridor
11.In Phase I PACU following strabismus repair, the oculocardiac reflex:
a. Is treated with metoprolol.
b. Corrects the deviation.
c. May cause tachycardia.
, d. May cause bradycardia. - Correct Answer: d. May cause
bradycardia
12.What is the minimum age that children develop a reasonably established
ability to discriminate degrees of pain in facial expressions?
a. 2 years
b. 3 years
c. 6 years
d. 8 years - Correct Answer: b. 3 years
13.Following maxillomandibular fixation, which of the following should be
readily available at the patient's bedside?
a. Wire cutters
b. Nasal airway
c. Laryngeal mask airway
d. Tracheostomy kit - Correct Answer: a. Wire cutters
14.Which of the following is a method to test for malignant hyperthermia?
a. Lumbar puncture
b. Bone biopsy
c. Blood test
d. Muscle biopsy - Correct Answer: d. Muscle biopsy
15.Naloxone acts as:
a. Benzodiazepine agonist.
b. Opioid antagonist.
c. Opioid agonist.
d. Benzodiazepine antagonist. - Correct Answer: b. Opioid
antagonist.
