2026/2027
RN ATI Nutrition Proctored Retake
Exam with NGN 2026/2027
Comprehensive Study Guide,
Practice Questions, Test Bank
Review, and Exam Preparation
Resource
Question 1
A nurse is providing dietary teaching about prevention of neural tube defects in a
pregnant client. Which nutrient should the nurse recommend?
A. Calcium
B. Folate
C. Vitamin B12
D. Magnesium
Correct Answer: B. Folate
Rationale:
Folate (folic acid) is essential during early pregnancy because it supports proper
neural tube development and significantly reduces the risk of defects such as spina
bifida and anencephaly. Calcium is important for fetal bone development, while
vitamin B12 supports red blood cell formation but does not prevent neural tube
defects. Magnesium supports muscle and nerve function but is not directly linked to
neural tube formation.
Question 2
A nurse is caring for a client who has dysphagia following a stroke. Which
intervention is most appropriate?
A. Tilt the head backward during swallowing
B. Encourage thin liquids to clear food
C. Add a thickening agent to liquids
D. Place client in semi-Fowler’s position only
Correct Answer: C. Add a thickening agent to liquids
,2026/2027
Rationale:
Thickened liquids reduce the risk of aspiration in clients with dysphagia by slowing
the flow of fluids and improving swallowing control. Tilting the head backward
increases aspiration risk. Thin liquids are harder to control and increase choking risk.
Semi-Fowler’s position alone is insufficient for safe swallowing.
Question 3
An older adult client reports decreased taste and smell. What nursing instruction is
most appropriate?
A. Maintain consistent food textures at meals
B. Use extra salt for flavor enhancement
C. Avoid labeling food containers
D. Drink fluids immediately after meals
Correct Answer: A. Maintain consistent food textures at meals
Rationale:
Consistent food textures improve safety and palatability for older adults with sensory
decline. Excess salt increases cardiovascular risk. Labeling food is actually helpful for
safety. Fluid timing does not address altered taste or smell.
Question 4
A client with a goiter is receiving dietary teaching. Which statement shows correct
understanding?
A. “I will eat more tuna.”
B. “I will eat more red meat.”
C. “I will eat bananas daily.”
D. “I will eat blueberries every morning.”
Correct Answer: A. “I will eat more tuna.”
Rationale:
Tuna is a good source of iodine, which supports thyroid hormone production and is
beneficial in goiter management. Red meat, bananas, and blueberries do not contain
significant iodine and do not directly support thyroid health.
Question 5
A client with C. difficile infection shows which lab result indicating fluid volume
deficit?
,2026/2027
A. Potassium 3.5 mEq/L
B. Hematocrit 53%
C. Sodium 145 mEq/L
D. HbA1c 5%
Correct Answer: B. Hematocrit 53%
Rationale:
Elevated hematocrit indicates hemoconcentration due to dehydration and fluid loss.
Potassium and sodium are within normal limits here and HbA1c reflects long-term
glucose control, not hydration status.
Question 6
A client in oliguric acute kidney injury produced 420 mL urine in 24 hours. How
much fluid should be given next day?
A. 2,550 mL
B. 1,530 mL
C. 920 mL
D. 2,040 mL
Correct Answer: C. 920 mL
Rationale:
Fluid allowance in oliguric renal failure is typically urine output + 500 mL for
insensible losses. 420 + 500 = 920 mL. Higher volumes risk fluid overload.
Question 7
A client undergoing radiation therapy reports anorexia. What instruction is best?
A. Limit high-calorie supplements
B. Eat hot foods instead of cold
C. Avoid eating on good days
D. Consume nutrient-dense foods first
Correct Answer: D. Consume nutrient-dense foods first
Rationale:
Eating nutrient-dense foods first ensures adequate calorie and protein intake during
poor appetite periods. Hot foods may worsen nausea, and restricting supplements
reduces intake. Good appetite days should be maximized.
Question 8
, 2026/2027
A client receiving enteral feeding develops dumping syndrome. What symptom
should be reported?
A. Constipation
B. Bradycardia
C. Drowsiness
D. Dizziness
Correct Answer: D. Dizziness
Rationale:
Dumping syndrome causes rapid fluid shifts leading to hypotension and dizziness.
Constipation and bradycardia are not typical findings. Drowsiness is nonspecific and
less characteristic.
Question 9
A client on a thiazide diuretic demonstrates understanding of diet when choosing:
A. Navy beans and ham
B. Baked potato
C. Cheddar cheese
D. Beef broth
Correct Answer: B. Baked potato
Rationale:
Thiazide diuretics can cause potassium loss; baked potatoes are rich in potassium and
help prevent hypokalemia. Processed meats and cheese are high in sodium and not
ideal.
Question 10
A client with chronic kidney disease requires dietary management. What should be
recommended?
A. Increase calcium intake
B. Increase potassium intake
C. Limit protein intake
D. Increase phosphorus intake
Correct Answer: C. Limit protein intake
Rationale:
Reducing protein intake decreases nitrogenous waste buildup in CKD. Increasing
potassium or phosphorus can worsen electrolyte imbalance. Calcium must be
carefully managed but not routinely increased.
RN ATI Nutrition Proctored Retake
Exam with NGN 2026/2027
Comprehensive Study Guide,
Practice Questions, Test Bank
Review, and Exam Preparation
Resource
Question 1
A nurse is providing dietary teaching about prevention of neural tube defects in a
pregnant client. Which nutrient should the nurse recommend?
A. Calcium
B. Folate
C. Vitamin B12
D. Magnesium
Correct Answer: B. Folate
Rationale:
Folate (folic acid) is essential during early pregnancy because it supports proper
neural tube development and significantly reduces the risk of defects such as spina
bifida and anencephaly. Calcium is important for fetal bone development, while
vitamin B12 supports red blood cell formation but does not prevent neural tube
defects. Magnesium supports muscle and nerve function but is not directly linked to
neural tube formation.
Question 2
A nurse is caring for a client who has dysphagia following a stroke. Which
intervention is most appropriate?
A. Tilt the head backward during swallowing
B. Encourage thin liquids to clear food
C. Add a thickening agent to liquids
D. Place client in semi-Fowler’s position only
Correct Answer: C. Add a thickening agent to liquids
,2026/2027
Rationale:
Thickened liquids reduce the risk of aspiration in clients with dysphagia by slowing
the flow of fluids and improving swallowing control. Tilting the head backward
increases aspiration risk. Thin liquids are harder to control and increase choking risk.
Semi-Fowler’s position alone is insufficient for safe swallowing.
Question 3
An older adult client reports decreased taste and smell. What nursing instruction is
most appropriate?
A. Maintain consistent food textures at meals
B. Use extra salt for flavor enhancement
C. Avoid labeling food containers
D. Drink fluids immediately after meals
Correct Answer: A. Maintain consistent food textures at meals
Rationale:
Consistent food textures improve safety and palatability for older adults with sensory
decline. Excess salt increases cardiovascular risk. Labeling food is actually helpful for
safety. Fluid timing does not address altered taste or smell.
Question 4
A client with a goiter is receiving dietary teaching. Which statement shows correct
understanding?
A. “I will eat more tuna.”
B. “I will eat more red meat.”
C. “I will eat bananas daily.”
D. “I will eat blueberries every morning.”
Correct Answer: A. “I will eat more tuna.”
Rationale:
Tuna is a good source of iodine, which supports thyroid hormone production and is
beneficial in goiter management. Red meat, bananas, and blueberries do not contain
significant iodine and do not directly support thyroid health.
Question 5
A client with C. difficile infection shows which lab result indicating fluid volume
deficit?
,2026/2027
A. Potassium 3.5 mEq/L
B. Hematocrit 53%
C. Sodium 145 mEq/L
D. HbA1c 5%
Correct Answer: B. Hematocrit 53%
Rationale:
Elevated hematocrit indicates hemoconcentration due to dehydration and fluid loss.
Potassium and sodium are within normal limits here and HbA1c reflects long-term
glucose control, not hydration status.
Question 6
A client in oliguric acute kidney injury produced 420 mL urine in 24 hours. How
much fluid should be given next day?
A. 2,550 mL
B. 1,530 mL
C. 920 mL
D. 2,040 mL
Correct Answer: C. 920 mL
Rationale:
Fluid allowance in oliguric renal failure is typically urine output + 500 mL for
insensible losses. 420 + 500 = 920 mL. Higher volumes risk fluid overload.
Question 7
A client undergoing radiation therapy reports anorexia. What instruction is best?
A. Limit high-calorie supplements
B. Eat hot foods instead of cold
C. Avoid eating on good days
D. Consume nutrient-dense foods first
Correct Answer: D. Consume nutrient-dense foods first
Rationale:
Eating nutrient-dense foods first ensures adequate calorie and protein intake during
poor appetite periods. Hot foods may worsen nausea, and restricting supplements
reduces intake. Good appetite days should be maximized.
Question 8
, 2026/2027
A client receiving enteral feeding develops dumping syndrome. What symptom
should be reported?
A. Constipation
B. Bradycardia
C. Drowsiness
D. Dizziness
Correct Answer: D. Dizziness
Rationale:
Dumping syndrome causes rapid fluid shifts leading to hypotension and dizziness.
Constipation and bradycardia are not typical findings. Drowsiness is nonspecific and
less characteristic.
Question 9
A client on a thiazide diuretic demonstrates understanding of diet when choosing:
A. Navy beans and ham
B. Baked potato
C. Cheddar cheese
D. Beef broth
Correct Answer: B. Baked potato
Rationale:
Thiazide diuretics can cause potassium loss; baked potatoes are rich in potassium and
help prevent hypokalemia. Processed meats and cheese are high in sodium and not
ideal.
Question 10
A client with chronic kidney disease requires dietary management. What should be
recommended?
A. Increase calcium intake
B. Increase potassium intake
C. Limit protein intake
D. Increase phosphorus intake
Correct Answer: C. Limit protein intake
Rationale:
Reducing protein intake decreases nitrogenous waste buildup in CKD. Increasing
potassium or phosphorus can worsen electrolyte imbalance. Calcium must be
carefully managed but not routinely increased.
