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CEA Prep: Full Practice Exam Questions
and Correct Answers/ Latest Update /
Already Graded
The patient is exhibiting a productive cough and a low-grade 𝑓ever.
Chest X-ray on PA view shows a le𝑓t lower chest area o𝑓 consolidation
adjacent to the le𝑓t border o𝑓 the heart approximately 2 rib spaces
above the costophrenic angle. The lateral x-ray view shows this lesion
absent o𝑓 the window posterior to the cardiac silhouette. Which is the
most likely location o𝑓 this area o𝑓 𝑓ocal consolidation?
*Le𝑓t upper lobe apex
*Right middle lobe
*Le𝑓t upper lobe lingula
*Le𝑓t lower lobe
Ans: Le𝑓t upper lobe lingula
Ratonale: Lingular consolidation is described in this question
precisely. I𝑓 the cardiac margin/silhouette is obliterated by the
mass, the lesion is either right middle lobe or le𝑓t upper lobe
lingula.
The inability to 𝑓ully relax the myocardium during relaxation is a
trademark o𝑓 which o𝑓 the 𝑓ollowing diagnoses?
Ans: Diastolic dys𝑓unction
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, Page |2
Rationale: The inability 𝑓or the heart to relax is a trademark o𝑓
the diagnosis o𝑓 diastolic dys𝑓unction and is common in patients
with thickened hypertrophic myocardium.
An otherwise healthy A𝑓rican American adult male has been
diagnosed with hypertension. He has been restricting his salt intake,
eating a DASH (Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension) diet, and
exercising more, but his blood pressure is still elevated. Which is the
BEST medication to prescribe him?
Ans: Calcium channel blocker
Rationale: A𝑓rican American patients per JNC8 Hypertension
Guidelines should be managed with a dihydropyridine calcium
channel blocker such as amlodipine (Norvasc) as 𝑓irst line
management therapy 𝑓or hypertension not at goal with DASH
and li𝑓estyle modi𝑓ications.
Your patient has been diagnosed with a 4.5cm ascending aortic
aneurysm. Which medical imaging is considered standard o𝑓 care 𝑓or
serial surveillance?
Ans: CT angiography o𝑓 the chest
Rationale: CT angiography is considered the standard o𝑓 care
𝑓or measuring vascular luminal dimensions with contrast. CT PE
protocol is not timed properly 𝑓or the aorta (it's timed 𝑓or the
pulmonary artery). Although a plain 𝑓ilm is able to catch large
All rights reserved © 2025/ 2026 |
, Page |3
aneurysms at times, they are not able to provide multi-axis
reconstruction needed to accurately measure the size.
Transesophageal echo is not needed to accurately measure the
aorta and requires the patient to undergo sedation which is
unnecessary.
Which o𝑓 the 𝑓ollowing medications does not cause beta 1 stimulation?
Ans: phenylephrine
Rationale: Phenylephrine only stimulates alpha 1 receptors. The
remaining three all have beta receptor activity.
A 50-year-old woman with a history o𝑓 hypertension presents with
dyspnea on exertion and orthopnea. On examination, she has jugular
venous distention and bilateral crackles on lung auscultation. What is
the most likely diagnosis?
Ans: Congestive heart 𝑓ailure
Rationale: O𝑓 the available options, the most accurate response
is congestive heart 𝑓ailure as it is signi𝑓ying both a right
ventricular back up with jugular venous extension and crackles
on lung assault, which are suggestive o𝑓 le𝑓t ventricular back
up. it is possible the patient may have an acute myocardial
in𝑓arction that precipitated this, however, a patient has not
described that, rather is only describing dyspnea on exertion
and orthopnea, which both speak to a state o𝑓 𝑓luid overload.
All rights reserved © 2025/ 2026 |
, Page |4
The only appropriate response o𝑓 these available is congestive
heart 𝑓ailure.
Your patient with a history o𝑓 HFrEF (heart 𝑓ailure with reduced
ejection 𝑓raction) with an ejection 𝑓raction o𝑓 40% who is also not on
optimal medical therapy has been diagnosed with a myocardial
in𝑓arction this admission and received emergent placement o𝑓 a drug-
eluting stent to the le𝑓t anterior descending artery. As the medical
home who will manage this patient a𝑓ter discharge, which medication
strategy would you expect to be a priority in the patient's care?
Ans: Ordering a transthoracic echocardiogram and order a
Li𝑓evest i𝑓 EF is less than 35%
Rationale: The patient should have a protective mechanism
such as an implantable automated cardioverter de𝑓ibrillator
(AICD) or a Li𝑓evest i𝑓 the EF is less than 35% due to the
increased risk o𝑓 sudden cardiac death with low EF states. Since
most patients are not eligible 𝑓or 90 days 𝑓or an AICD in this
state, optimizing their medication regimen and repeating an
echo in 2-3 months to re-evaluate 𝑓or improvement in their EF is
required by most insurance companies. A baseline echo is
needed at discharge to provide a baseline 𝑓or improvement vs
their repeat echo in 2-3 months.
Dual anti-platelet therapy is required 𝑓or 12 months minimum
post-MI.
A Holter monitor does not provide any conceivable bene𝑓it 𝑓or
this patient as presented.
All rights reserved © 2025/ 2026 |
CEA Prep: Full Practice Exam Questions
and Correct Answers/ Latest Update /
Already Graded
The patient is exhibiting a productive cough and a low-grade 𝑓ever.
Chest X-ray on PA view shows a le𝑓t lower chest area o𝑓 consolidation
adjacent to the le𝑓t border o𝑓 the heart approximately 2 rib spaces
above the costophrenic angle. The lateral x-ray view shows this lesion
absent o𝑓 the window posterior to the cardiac silhouette. Which is the
most likely location o𝑓 this area o𝑓 𝑓ocal consolidation?
*Le𝑓t upper lobe apex
*Right middle lobe
*Le𝑓t upper lobe lingula
*Le𝑓t lower lobe
Ans: Le𝑓t upper lobe lingula
Ratonale: Lingular consolidation is described in this question
precisely. I𝑓 the cardiac margin/silhouette is obliterated by the
mass, the lesion is either right middle lobe or le𝑓t upper lobe
lingula.
The inability to 𝑓ully relax the myocardium during relaxation is a
trademark o𝑓 which o𝑓 the 𝑓ollowing diagnoses?
Ans: Diastolic dys𝑓unction
All rights reserved © 2025/ 2026 |
, Page |2
Rationale: The inability 𝑓or the heart to relax is a trademark o𝑓
the diagnosis o𝑓 diastolic dys𝑓unction and is common in patients
with thickened hypertrophic myocardium.
An otherwise healthy A𝑓rican American adult male has been
diagnosed with hypertension. He has been restricting his salt intake,
eating a DASH (Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension) diet, and
exercising more, but his blood pressure is still elevated. Which is the
BEST medication to prescribe him?
Ans: Calcium channel blocker
Rationale: A𝑓rican American patients per JNC8 Hypertension
Guidelines should be managed with a dihydropyridine calcium
channel blocker such as amlodipine (Norvasc) as 𝑓irst line
management therapy 𝑓or hypertension not at goal with DASH
and li𝑓estyle modi𝑓ications.
Your patient has been diagnosed with a 4.5cm ascending aortic
aneurysm. Which medical imaging is considered standard o𝑓 care 𝑓or
serial surveillance?
Ans: CT angiography o𝑓 the chest
Rationale: CT angiography is considered the standard o𝑓 care
𝑓or measuring vascular luminal dimensions with contrast. CT PE
protocol is not timed properly 𝑓or the aorta (it's timed 𝑓or the
pulmonary artery). Although a plain 𝑓ilm is able to catch large
All rights reserved © 2025/ 2026 |
, Page |3
aneurysms at times, they are not able to provide multi-axis
reconstruction needed to accurately measure the size.
Transesophageal echo is not needed to accurately measure the
aorta and requires the patient to undergo sedation which is
unnecessary.
Which o𝑓 the 𝑓ollowing medications does not cause beta 1 stimulation?
Ans: phenylephrine
Rationale: Phenylephrine only stimulates alpha 1 receptors. The
remaining three all have beta receptor activity.
A 50-year-old woman with a history o𝑓 hypertension presents with
dyspnea on exertion and orthopnea. On examination, she has jugular
venous distention and bilateral crackles on lung auscultation. What is
the most likely diagnosis?
Ans: Congestive heart 𝑓ailure
Rationale: O𝑓 the available options, the most accurate response
is congestive heart 𝑓ailure as it is signi𝑓ying both a right
ventricular back up with jugular venous extension and crackles
on lung assault, which are suggestive o𝑓 le𝑓t ventricular back
up. it is possible the patient may have an acute myocardial
in𝑓arction that precipitated this, however, a patient has not
described that, rather is only describing dyspnea on exertion
and orthopnea, which both speak to a state o𝑓 𝑓luid overload.
All rights reserved © 2025/ 2026 |
, Page |4
The only appropriate response o𝑓 these available is congestive
heart 𝑓ailure.
Your patient with a history o𝑓 HFrEF (heart 𝑓ailure with reduced
ejection 𝑓raction) with an ejection 𝑓raction o𝑓 40% who is also not on
optimal medical therapy has been diagnosed with a myocardial
in𝑓arction this admission and received emergent placement o𝑓 a drug-
eluting stent to the le𝑓t anterior descending artery. As the medical
home who will manage this patient a𝑓ter discharge, which medication
strategy would you expect to be a priority in the patient's care?
Ans: Ordering a transthoracic echocardiogram and order a
Li𝑓evest i𝑓 EF is less than 35%
Rationale: The patient should have a protective mechanism
such as an implantable automated cardioverter de𝑓ibrillator
(AICD) or a Li𝑓evest i𝑓 the EF is less than 35% due to the
increased risk o𝑓 sudden cardiac death with low EF states. Since
most patients are not eligible 𝑓or 90 days 𝑓or an AICD in this
state, optimizing their medication regimen and repeating an
echo in 2-3 months to re-evaluate 𝑓or improvement in their EF is
required by most insurance companies. A baseline echo is
needed at discharge to provide a baseline 𝑓or improvement vs
their repeat echo in 2-3 months.
Dual anti-platelet therapy is required 𝑓or 12 months minimum
post-MI.
A Holter monitor does not provide any conceivable bene𝑓it 𝑓or
this patient as presented.
All rights reserved © 2025/ 2026 |
