NR-602 Primary Care of the Childbearing &
Childrearing Family II – Prep Exam Question
Bank
150+ Multiple Choice Questions with Answers
and Detailed Rationales
Course Note: NR-602 Primary Care of the
Childbearing and Childrearing Family Practicum is an
advanced course at Chamberlain University focusing
on the healthcare needs of women and families
throughout reproductive and childrearing years .
Students develop skills in health promotion,
prevention of illness, diagnosis, and management of
health problems commonly experienced by women,
children, and adolescents . This comprehensive prep
exam covers well-woman care, obstetrics,
postpartum care, newborn and pediatric primary
care, adolescent health, infectious diseases, and
immunization schedules.
,This question bank contains 150+ questions aligned
with the NR-602 curriculum and the 2026/2027
academic year .
Topic 1: Well-Woman Care & Reproductive Health
(Questions 1-15)
1. A 21-year-old female presents with three 0.5 cm
human papillomavirus (HPV) lesions on her vulva.
An appropriate treatment option for this patient
would be:
a) Imiquimod 5% cream
b) Podophyllin 10-25% applied by provider
c) Watchful waiting for spontaneous resolution
d) Oral acyclovir
Answer: b
Rationale: External genital warts (condylomata
acuminata) caused by HPV can be treated with
patient-applied podophyllotoxin 0.5% solution or
provider-applied podophyllin 10-25%. Podophyllin
should NOT be used during pregnancy. The lesions
,should be treated to prevent spread, though
spontaneous resolution may occur over months.
Acyclovir treats herpes simplex virus, not HPV .
2. A 26-year-old woman has a Pap smear result of
negative for intraepithelial lesion or malignancy
(NILM) but positive for high-risk HPV. What is the
appropriate management?
a) Repeat Pap smear in 1 year
b) Repeat co-testing (Pap + HPV) in 12 months
c) Immediate colposcopy
d) HPV vaccination now
Answer: b
Rationale: For women age 25-29 with negative
cytology and positive high-risk HPV, repeat co-
testing in 12 months is recommended. For women
age 30 and older with NILM/HPV+, options include
repeat co-testing in 12 months or reflex HPV 16/18
genotyping. Immediate colposcopy is indicated for
, HPV 16/18 positivity or abnormal cytology
regardless of HPV result .
3. A 35-year-old female patient has never had an
abnormal Pap smear and has had regular screening
since age 18. If she has a normal Pap smear with
negative HPV testing today, when should she have
the next cervical cancer screening?
a) 1 year
b) 3 years
c) 5 years
d) 10 years
Answer: c
Rationale: For women aged 30-65, co-testing with
Pap smear and HPV testing every 5 years is
recommended if both are normal. This extended
interval is safe due to the high sensitivity of co-
testing .
4. A 45-year-old female has dense breast tissue on
mammogram. Her mother had breast cancer at age
Childrearing Family II – Prep Exam Question
Bank
150+ Multiple Choice Questions with Answers
and Detailed Rationales
Course Note: NR-602 Primary Care of the
Childbearing and Childrearing Family Practicum is an
advanced course at Chamberlain University focusing
on the healthcare needs of women and families
throughout reproductive and childrearing years .
Students develop skills in health promotion,
prevention of illness, diagnosis, and management of
health problems commonly experienced by women,
children, and adolescents . This comprehensive prep
exam covers well-woman care, obstetrics,
postpartum care, newborn and pediatric primary
care, adolescent health, infectious diseases, and
immunization schedules.
,This question bank contains 150+ questions aligned
with the NR-602 curriculum and the 2026/2027
academic year .
Topic 1: Well-Woman Care & Reproductive Health
(Questions 1-15)
1. A 21-year-old female presents with three 0.5 cm
human papillomavirus (HPV) lesions on her vulva.
An appropriate treatment option for this patient
would be:
a) Imiquimod 5% cream
b) Podophyllin 10-25% applied by provider
c) Watchful waiting for spontaneous resolution
d) Oral acyclovir
Answer: b
Rationale: External genital warts (condylomata
acuminata) caused by HPV can be treated with
patient-applied podophyllotoxin 0.5% solution or
provider-applied podophyllin 10-25%. Podophyllin
should NOT be used during pregnancy. The lesions
,should be treated to prevent spread, though
spontaneous resolution may occur over months.
Acyclovir treats herpes simplex virus, not HPV .
2. A 26-year-old woman has a Pap smear result of
negative for intraepithelial lesion or malignancy
(NILM) but positive for high-risk HPV. What is the
appropriate management?
a) Repeat Pap smear in 1 year
b) Repeat co-testing (Pap + HPV) in 12 months
c) Immediate colposcopy
d) HPV vaccination now
Answer: b
Rationale: For women age 25-29 with negative
cytology and positive high-risk HPV, repeat co-
testing in 12 months is recommended. For women
age 30 and older with NILM/HPV+, options include
repeat co-testing in 12 months or reflex HPV 16/18
genotyping. Immediate colposcopy is indicated for
, HPV 16/18 positivity or abnormal cytology
regardless of HPV result .
3. A 35-year-old female patient has never had an
abnormal Pap smear and has had regular screening
since age 18. If she has a normal Pap smear with
negative HPV testing today, when should she have
the next cervical cancer screening?
a) 1 year
b) 3 years
c) 5 years
d) 10 years
Answer: c
Rationale: For women aged 30-65, co-testing with
Pap smear and HPV testing every 5 years is
recommended if both are normal. This extended
interval is safe due to the high sensitivity of co-
testing .
4. A 45-year-old female has dense breast tissue on
mammogram. Her mother had breast cancer at age
